 
BIOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS

John Janovy, Jr.

Smashwords Edition

Copyright © John Janovy, Jr., 2011

NOTE: If you're downloading this file, then there's an excellent chance you also need OUTWITTING COLLEGE PROFESSORS: AN INSIDER'S GUIDE TO SECRETS OF THE SYSTEM (available on Smashwords and in paperback from http://www.createspace.com/5688713). OUTWITTING will double the value of whatever tuition you're already paying!

This ebook contains copies of all exams given in a college biology course from 2007 through 2010. The answers are available for $2.99 from Smashwords (http://www.smashwords.com/books/view/117618), but they should be fairly easy to obtain from any college-level textbook or from the Internet. I hope this document helps you get better grades. There is no guarantee that your own instructor will use questions similar to these, but the material covered in these exams is very standard for introductory biology courses at the college level. I did not take the time to re-number any questions; they're simply sorted according to subject. Also, you'll probably discover that teachers may use the same questions over and over again. In fact, while going through questions for answers, I discovered that I'd used the same questions maybe five or six times. My own classes got these same questions, but their grades seemed to get lower and lower, as a group, according to the number of questions, and in some cases answers, they'd received prior to the test. I can't explain this trend.

ISBN: 978-1-4658-1658-0

Table of Contents:

Chapter 1 – The nature of science

Chapter 2 – Baby biochemistry

Chapter 3 – Cell biology and metabolism

Chapter 4 – Genetics

Chapter 5 – Organismic biology

Chapter 6 – Evolution

Chapter 7 – Ecology

Chapter 8 – The Big Picture in biology

BIOS 101 - Outcomes

*****

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Chapter 1 – The nature of science

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true statement. (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true. (c) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false. (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena. (e) a prediction that cannot be demonstrated to be false.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups. (b) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups. (c) an untestable prediction. (d) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. In order to do experiments in biology, you will need (a) cooperative organisms that you can acquire. (b) a design that includes a testable hypothesis. (c) a design that should include an alternative testable hypothesis. (d) a means of quantifying your results. (e) All of these.

4. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero. (b) must be zero. (c) could be zero or some other value. (d) must not be zero. (e) None of these answers is correct.

5. Biology can be considered an historical science because (a) experiments can be done many times. (b) chemistry and math are commonly used in biological research. (c) evolution is the central unifying theme of biology. (d) paradigms guide much of biological research.

6. Proximal questions (a) usually begin with the word "how." (b) usually begin with the word "why." (c) tend to address problems of origin. (d) tend to address problems of evolution. (e) All of these.

7. Ultimate questions (a) usually begin with the word "why." (b) tend to address problems of origin. (c) tend to address problems of evolution. (d) are often of historical importance. (e) All of these.

8. The statement "If you put a million tons of CFC's into the atmosphere every year for 65 years, the ozone layer will not be changed" can be considered (a) a testable null hypothesis. (b) an experimental design with a control group. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a non-scientific assertion. (e) All of these.

9. The statement "You can burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years and this act will have no effect on human welfare, global politics, or global economics" can be considered (a) a testable null hypothesis. (b) an experimental design with a control group. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a non-scientific assertion. (e) None of these.

10. Paradigms are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (b) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (c) evidence used to answer questions about cell function. (d) predictions that cannot be falsified.

39. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimentals and controls? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) All of these. (e) None of these.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true statement. (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true. (c) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false. (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena. (e) a prediction that cannot be demonstrated to be false.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups. (b) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups. (c) an untestable prediction. (d) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. In order to do experiments in biology, you will need (a) cooperative organisms that you can acquire. (b) a design that includes a testable hypothesis. (c) a design that should include an alternative testable hypothesis. (d) a means of quantifying your results. (e) All of these.

4. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero. (b) must be zero. (c) could be zero or some other value. (d) must not be zero. (e) None of these answers is correct.

5. Biology can be considered an historical science because (a) experiments can be done many times. (b) chemistry and math are commonly used in biological research. (c) evolution is the central unifying theme of biology. (d) paradigms guide much of biological research.

6. The statement "If you put a million tons of CFC's into the atmosphere every year for 65 years, the ozone layer will not be changed" can be considered (a) a testable null hypothesis. (b) an experimental design with a control group. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a non-scientific assertion. (e) All of these.

7. The statement "You can burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years and this act will have no effect on human welfare, global politics, or global economics" can be considered (a) a testable null hypothesis. (b) an experimental design with a control group. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a non-scientific assertion. (e) None of these.

8. Paradigms are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (b) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (c) evidence used to answer questions about cell function. (d) predictions that cannot be falsified.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a false statement that scientists try to prove true. (b) a true statement that scientists try to prove false. (c) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false. (d) a true statement about nature. (e) a prediction that scientists must demonstrate is true.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups (b) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups (c) an untestable prediction (d) a prediction that scientists fail to reject (e) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimental and control groups? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) All of these questions should be asked.

4. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) any of these.

5. In order to do experiments in biology, you will need (a) cooperative organisms that you can acquire. (b) a design that includes a testable hypothesis. (c) a design that should include an alternative testable hypothesis. (d) a means of quantifying your results. (e) All of these.

6. In biology, organisms are sometimes considered uncooperative if (a) they evolve. (b) they cannot be easily cultured in large numbers. (c) they quickly multiply if provided with minimal food and water. (d) they exhibit genetic variations. (e) they exhibit superfecundity.

7. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) more individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) environmental conditions produce genetic variants. (e) All of these answers are correct.

8. The Darwinian principles most well supported by observations include the following: (a) Species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) All of these answers are correct.

9. The statement "If you put a million tons of CFC's into the atmosphere every year for 65 years, the ozone layer will not be changed" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a testable null hypothesis. (e) All of these.

10. The statement "If we burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years, this act will have no effect on human welfare or global economics" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a testable null hypothesis. (e) None of these.

11. Paradigms are (a) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (b) predictions that cannot be falsified. (c) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (d) views about nature that lead to untestable predictions. (e) None of these answers is correct.

12. A good example of life's uniformity can be seen in the (a) general manner in which nucleic acids are assembled. (b) sequence of DNA nucleotides in various campus plant species. (c) primary structures of enzymes in campus plants. (d) characteristics that distinguish one campus plant species from another (e) None of these answers is correct.

13. A good example of life's enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen (a) in use of DNA nucleotide sequences to construct a phylogeny. (b) in genetic differences between roses and oak trees. (c) in the numbers of different enzymes found in a cell. (d) among students at UNL. (e) All of these.

39. A scientific "fact" is best defined as (a) observations or data. (b) an assertion by scientists. (c) the conclusions resulting from test of a hypothesis. (d) ideas that support a theory. (e) Any of these things could be considered facts for a person writing a freshman biology textbook.

40. Which of the following issues requires an understanding of how science actually operates? (a) the consequences of climate change (b) the global supply and use of fossil fuel (c) the economic impact of technological innovations (d) the social and economic costs of illness (e) all of these.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a false statement that scientists try to prove true. (b) a true statement that scientists try to prove false. (c) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false. (d) a true statement about nature. (e) a prediction that scientists must demonstrate is true.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction that there will be a difference between the control and experimental groups (b) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups (c) an untestable prediction (d) a prediction that scientists fail to reject (e) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimental and control groups? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) All of these questions should be asked.

4. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) more individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) environmental conditions produce genetic variants. (e) All of these answers are correct.

5. The statement "If we burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years, this act will have no effect on human welfare or global economics" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a testable null hypothesis. (e) None of these.

6. Paradigms are (a) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (b) predictions that cannot be falsified. (c) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (d) views about nature that lead to untestable predictions. (e) None of these answers is correct.

7. A good example of life's uniformity can be seen in the (a) general manner in which nucleic acids are assembled. (b) sequence of DNA nucleotides in various campus plant species. (c) primary structures of enzymes in campus plants. (d) characteristics that distinguish one campus plant species from another (e) None of these answers is correct.

8. A good example of life's enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen (a) in use of DNA nucleotide sequences to construct a phylogeny. (b) in genetic differences between roses and oak trees. (c) in the numbers of different enzymes found in a cell. (d) among students at UNL. (e) All of these.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a false statement that scientists try to prove false. (b) a true statement that scientists try to prove true. (c) a true statement about nature. (d) a prediction that scientists must demonstrate is true. (e) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction that there will be some difference between the control and experimental groups (b) a prediction that scientists must reject (c) a prediction that scientists cannot reject (d) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups (e) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimental and control groups? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) Can my prediction actually be tested? (e) All of these questions should be asked.

4. If you calculated the final grades of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) grade percentages (b) numbers of people with a particular grade (c) number of people in the room (d) class average (e) any of these.

5. If you calculated the final grades of all the people from BIOS 101 classes over the past ten years, then made frequency distributions from the data, what would be the dependent variables? (a) grade percentages (b) numbers of people with a particular grade (c) number of people in each of the classes (d) class averages (e) any of these.

6. If you calculated the final grades of all the people from all BIOS 101 instructors' classes over the past ten years, then made frequency distributions from the data, what observations would help you "think like a scientist"? (a) class averages (b) amount of overlap between the distributions (c) number of people in each of the classes (d) class average difference between years (e) all of these.

7. In order to do experiments in biology, you will need (a) a design that includes a testable hypothesis. (b) cooperative organisms that you can acquire or observe. (c) a means of manipulating the conditions under which observations are made. (d) a means of quantifying your results. (e) All of these.

8. In biology, organisms are most useful for laboratory experiments if (a) they evolve. (b) they quickly multiply when provided with food, water, and potential mates. (c) they exhibit genetic variations. (d) they are large enough to study without a microscope. (e) all of these.

9. The statement "If you put a million tons of CFC's into the atmosphere every year for 65 years, the ozone layer will not be changed" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a testable null hypothesis. (e) All of these.

10. The statement "If we burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years, this act will have no effect on human welfare or global economics" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) a testable null hypothesis. (c) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (d) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (e) None of these.

15. Proximal questions (a) typically begin with the word "how". (b) are questions about function. (c) can often be answered using cooperative organisms. (d) often can be addressed using null hypotheses as part of the experimental design. (e) All of these answers are correct.

16. Ultimate questions (a) are questions about function. (b) can often be answered using uncooperative organisms. (c) typically begin with the word "why," so are questions of origin. (d) require cooperative organisms before they can be answered. (e) None of these answers is correct.

17. Paradigms are (a) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (b) predictions that cannot be falsified. (c) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (d) views about nature that lead to untestable predictions. (e) None of these answers is correct.

1. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a false statement that scientists try to prove false. (b) a true statement that scientists try to prove true. (c) a true statement about nature. (d) a prediction that scientists must demonstrate is true. (e) a prediction that can be demonstrated to be false.

2. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction that there will be some difference between the control and experimental groups (b) a prediction that scientists must reject (c) a prediction that scientists cannot reject (d) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups (e) a non-scientific hypothesis.

3. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimental and control groups? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) Can my prediction actually be tested? (e) All of these questions should be asked.

4. If you calculated the final grades of all the people in our class, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) grade percentages (b) numbers of people with a particular grade (c) number of people in the room (d) class average (e) any of these.

5. If you calculated the final grades of all the people from BIOS 101 classes over the past ten years, then made frequency distributions from the data, what would be the dependent variables? (a) grade percentages (b) numbers of people with a particular grade (c) number of people in each of the classes (d) class averages (e) any of these.

6. The statement "If you put a million tons of CFC's into the atmosphere every year for 65 years, the ozone layer will not be changed" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (c) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (d) a testable null hypothesis. (e) All of these.

7. The statement "If we burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years, this act will have no effect on human welfare or global economics" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) a testable null hypothesis. (c) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (d) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (e) None of these.

8. Considering data readily available to all of us, which of the following Darwinian principles should apply to humans? (a) Species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) Conditions are ideal for evolution into a new species of human-like animal on Earth. (e) All of these answers are correct.

9. If scientists are correct, we should begin to see rapid Darwinian selection occur in humans (a) within the next decade. (b) about mid-21st Century. (c) in several hundred years. (d) never.

24. What is a null hypothesis? (a) a prediction that there will be some difference between the control and experimental groups (b) a prediction that scientists must reject (c) a prediction that scientists cannot reject (d) a prediction of no difference between experimental and control groups (e) a non-scientific hypothesis.

25. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) average height (e) none of these.

26. If you recorded the final grades of all the people in this class, and did the same for the 11:30 class, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable? (a) grades (b) numbers of people with a particular grade (c) class average (d) distribution overlap (e) none of these.

27. The null hypothesis of an experiment testing whether scarlet king snakes are protected from predators by mimicking coral snakes would be:

(a) Both species get eaten at the same rate regardless of where they live.

(b) Coral snakes get eaten more frequently than king snakes regardless of where they live.

(c) King snakes get eaten more frequently than coral snakes regardless of where they live.

(d) King snakes get eaten more frequently than coral snakes when coral snakes are present.

(e) Coral snakes get eaten more frequently than king snakes when king snakes are present.

28. The statement "If we burn tropical forests at the rate of 50 acres/minute for fifty years, this act will have no effect on human welfare or global economics" can be considered (a) an hypothesis for an experiment with a control group. (b) a testable null hypothesis. (c) an experiment involving cooperative organisms. (d) a prediction that cannot be falsified. (e) None of these.

29. Which of the following questions are typical of those asked by biologists designing experiments? (a) Were all my original group members identical? (b) How do I measure the qualities present in both the experimental and control groups? (c) Are there some alternative hypotheses to explain my results? (d) Can my prediction actually be tested? (e) All of these questions should be asked.

30. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) more individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) environmental conditions produce genetic variants. (e) All of these answers are correct.

31. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the brown pelican? (a) Pelecanus occidentalis (b) _Pelecanus occidentalis_ (c) _pelecanus occidentalis_ (d) _Pelecanus_ occidentalis (e) Any of these ways are okay for your Friday writing follow-ups.

*****

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Chapter 2 – Baby biochemistry

11. Which of the following BIOS101 vocabulary words are you likely to find in the ingredients list of junk food from a campus vending machine? (a) protein (b) lipid or monoglycerides (c) sugar (d) polyunsaturated (e) All of these.

12. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine were probably built by cells carrying out dehydration synthesis? (a) saturated fat (b) soy protein (c) starch (d) triglycerides (e) all of these.

13. Glucose (a) is a carbohydrate. (b) is a polymer. (c) contains relatively large amounts of nitrogen. (d) has the same properties as CO2 and H2O. (e) None of these.

14. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids. (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together. (c) perform similar functions for humans. (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

15. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) glycerol as one of its parts. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) a glycogen subunit.

16. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

17. In order to be a carbohydrate, a molecule must have (a) a carboxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

18. In order to be a lipid, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

19. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

20. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be digested by a hydrolytic enzyme? (a) DNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

21. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be built by enzymes carrying out dehydration synthesis? (a) RNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

22. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid. (b) nucleotides in DNA. (c) amino acids in a protein. (d) adenine and uracil in RNA. (e) All of these.

23. The primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

24. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by enzymes carrying out hydrolysis? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (d) starch (d) triglycerides (e) all of these.

25. Which of the following would be found in DNA of a host cell infected with HIV? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) nucleotides like adenine and guanine (e) fatty acids.

26. Which of the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction in which glycogen was the substrate? (a) glycerol (b) fatty acids (c) amino acids (d) glucose (e) All of these.

27. If you digested the plasma membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions carried out by hydrolytic enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) fatty acids (e) All of these.

28. Which of the following would you expect to find inside one of your own cells? (a) mitochondria (b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) nuclear envelope (d) ribosomes (e) All of these.

29. A nucleotide molecule consists of (a) branching chains of glucose. (b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids. (d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group. (e) a long chain of carboxyl groups.

30. Various cell membrane proteins probably (a) differ in both primary and tertiary structure. (b) carry out different functions. (c) have polysaccharides attached to them. (d) help transport materials across the membrane. (e) All of these.

31. Which of the following would be considered an initial step in digestion? (a) production of fatty acids from lipids (b) production of amino acids from proteins (c) production of nucleotides from DNA or RNA (d) production of glucose from glycogen (e) Any of these.

32. Polysaccharide portions of membrane glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure. (b) contain different kinds of amino acids. (c) have different nucleotide sequences. (d) are built by hydrolytic enzymes. (e) All of these.

33. RNA is (a) a polymer containing uracil. (b) a product of the reaction carried out by hydrolytic enzymes. (c) a monomer containing adenine and guanine. (d) a polymer made up of glycerol and fatty acids. (e) a polymer made up of glucose molecules.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). A through E are the molecules involved, and E1 through E4 are the enzymes.

A ------> B ------> C ------> D ------> E

**E** 1 **E** 2 **E** 3 **E** 4

The following questions concern this metabolic pathway:

41. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) B is a product of the reaction carried out by E3. (b) E3 and E4 are utilizing the same substrate. (c) The active site of E1 is the same shape as the active site of E2. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) The primary structure of E1 is probably quite different from the primary structure of E4.

42. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) The product of the reaction carried out by E3 is a substrate for E4. (b) E3 and E4 are generating the same products. (c) The active site of E3 is the same shape as the active site of E4. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) All of these answers are correct.

43. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about proteins, enzymes, and large polymer molecules, that (a) The reaction carried out by E3 could be dehydration synthesis. (b) The reaction carried out by E3 could be hydrolysis. (c) The substrates and products could be either lipids or polysaccharides. (d) The substrates and products could be amino acids or fatty acids. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

44. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) the active site of E1 binds to substrate D because of the tertiary structure of E1. (c) if these enzymatic reactions occur after a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle containing a piece of dead mouse, then they can probably be reversed, also within that same lysosomes. (d) if these reactions occur within mitochondria, then they consume vast amounts of energy and produce no usable energy for the cell as whole. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

45. From what you know about enzymes, proteins, large polymer molecules, and cell function, you can assume that (a) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

9. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids. (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together. (c) perform similar functions for humans. (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

10. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) glycerol as one of its parts. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) a glycogen subunit.

11. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

12. In order to be a carbohydrate, a molecule must have (a) a carboxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

13. In order to be a lipid, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

14. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

15. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be digested by a hydrolytic enzyme? (a) DNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

16. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be built by enzymes carrying out dehydration synthesis? (a) RNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

17. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid. (b) nucleotides in DNA. (c) amino acids in a protein. (d) adenine and uracil in RNA. (e) All of these.

18. The primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

19. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by enzymes carrying out hydrolysis? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (c) starch (d) tri-glycerides (e) All of these.

20. Which of the following would be found in DNA of a host cell infected with HIV? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) nucleotides like adenine and guanine (e) fatty acids.

21. Which of the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction in which glycogen was the substrate? (a) glycerol (b) fatty acids (c) amino acids (d) glucose (e) All of these.

22. If you digested the plasma membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions carried out by hydrolytic enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) fatty acids (e) All of these.

23. Which of the following would you expect to find inside one of your own cells? (a) mitochondria (b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) nuclear envelope (d) ribosomes (e) All of these.

24. A nucleotide molecule consists of (a) branching chains of glucose. (b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids. (d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group. (e) a long chain of carboxyl groups.

25. Various cell membrane proteins probably (a) differ in both primary and tertiary structure. (b) carry out different functions. (c) have polysaccharides attached to them. (d) help transport materials across the membrane. (e) All of these.

6. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids. (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together. (c) perform similar functions for humans. (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

7. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) glycerol as one of its parts. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) a glycogen subunit.

8. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

9. In order to be a carbohydrate, a molecule must have (a) a carboxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

10. In order to be a lipid, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a 1:2:1::C:H:O ratio. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

11. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) Any of these.

12. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be digested by a hydrolytic enzyme? (a) DNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

13. Which of the following kinds of molecules would you expect to be built by enzymes carrying out dehydration synthesis? (a) RNA (b) glycogen (c) glycoprotein (d) a membrane phospholipid (e) All of these.

14. The primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

15. Which of the following would be found in DNA of a host cell infected with HIV? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) nucleotides like adenine and guanine (e) fatty acids.

16. If you digested the plasma membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions carried out by hydrolytic enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) glucose (c) amino acids (d) fatty acids (e) All of these.

17. Various cell membrane proteins probably (a) differ in both primary and tertiary structure. (b) carry out different functions. (c) have polysaccharides attached to them. (d) help transport materials across the membrane. (e) All of these.

18. Which of the following would be considered an initial step in digestion? (a) production of fatty acids from lipids (b) production of amino acids from proteins (c) production of nucleotides from DNA or RNA (d) production of glucose from glycogen (e) Any of these.

14. Which of the following BIOS101 vocabulary words are you likely to find in the ingredients list of junk food from a campus vending machine? (a) protein (b) lipid or monoglycerides (c) sugar (d) polyunsaturated (e) All of these.

15. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine were probably built by cells carrying out dehydration synthesis reactions? (a) saturated fat (b) protein from soy beans (c) starch (d) triglycerides (e) All of these.

16. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids. (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together. (c) perform similar functions for humans. (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

17. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) glycerol as one of its parts. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) a glycogen subunit.

18. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) All of these.

19. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined together by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

20. In order to be a polysaccharide, a molecule must have (a) at least one fatty acid. (b) at least one peptide bond between its monosaccharides. (c) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group. (d) several sugars linked together in a chain. (e) sugars linked together by peptide bonds.

21. In order to be a lipid, a molecule must have (a) at least one monosaccharide. (b) at least one fatty acid attached to glycerol. (c) a phosphate group attached to its alpha carbon. (d) both an amine group and a carboxyl group attached to its glycerol. (e) None of these answers is correct.

22. Your campus plants should be using (a) hydrolysis reactions to build nucleic acids. (b) hydrolysis reactions to build polypeptides. (c) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart polysaccharides. (d) dehydration synthesis reactions to build polysaccharides. (e) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart lipids.

23. If you ate a leaf from your campus plant and digested some of it, what compounds would likely be found in your intestine? (b) amino acids (b) glycerol (c) fatty acids (d) nucleotides (e) all of these.

24. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid. (b) nucleotides in DNA. (c) amino acids in a polypeptide. (d) nucleotides in nucleic acids. (e) All of these.

25. The primary structure of a protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

26. The tertiary structure of a protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

27. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by enzymes carrying out hydrolysis? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (c) starch (d) tri-glycerides (e) All of these.

28. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by enzymes carrying out dehydration synthesis reactions? (a) saturated fat (b) enzymes (c) starch (d) triglycerides (e) None of these.

9. Which of the following items listed on junk food from a campus vending machine were probably built by cells carrying out dehydration synthesis reactions? (a) saturated fat (b) protein from soy beans (c) starch (d) triglycerides (e) All of these.

10. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) glycerol as one of its parts. (d) numerous peptide bonds. (e) a glycogen subunit.

11. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol and a fatty acid. (d) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (e) All of these.

12. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined together by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

13. In order to be a polysaccharide, a molecule must have (a) at least one fatty acid. (b) at least one peptide bond between its monosaccharides. (c) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group. (d) several sugars linked together in a chain. (e) sugars linked together by peptide bonds.

14. In order to be a lipid, a molecule must have (a) at least one monosaccharide. (b) at least one fatty acid attached to glycerol. (c) a phosphate group attached to its alpha carbon. (d) both an amine group and a carboxyl group attached to its glycerol. (e) None of these answers is correct.

15. The primary structure of a protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

16. The tertiary structure of a protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

17. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

18. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a Golgi organelle, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

19. What do you know about the nucleotides within the nuclei of two different species of campus plants? (a) At least some of them contain adenine. (b) Their sequences within nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They all contain nitrogen and carbon. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

26. If you ate a leaf from a plant on campus and digested some of it, what compounds would likely be found in your intestine? (b) amino acids (b) glycerol (c) fatty acids (d) nucleotides (e) all of these.

27. Peptide bonds occur between (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) nucleotides in DNA. (c) nucleotides in starch or glycogen. (d) amino acids in a polypeptide. (e) All of these.

28. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both a hydroxyl and a carboxyl group. (c) both a carboxyl and an amine group. (d) the general formula CnH2nOn. (e) one or more glycogen subunits.

29. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) one or more unsaturated fatty acids. (d) a nitrogen-containing carbon ring, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) dipeptides and peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

30. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined together by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

31. What do you know about the nucleic acids within _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_? (a) At least some of them contain adenine and cytosine. (b) The sequences within their nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They are polymers. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

32. _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_ should be using (a) hydrolysis reactions to build nucleic acids. (b) hydrolysis reactions to build polypeptides. (c) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart large molecules such as starch and glycogen. (d) dehydration synthesis reactions to build glycogen. (e) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart lipids.

33. _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_ should be using (a) dehydration synthesis reactions to build nucleic acids. (b) dehydration synthesis reactions to build polypeptides. (c) hydrolysis reactions to break apart lipids. (d) hydrolysis reactions to break apart proteins. (e) All of these answers are correct.

34. In order to be a lipid found in _Pelecanus occidentalis_ , a molecule must have (a) at least one nucleotide. (b) at least one unsaturated double-bond between carbon atoms. (c) both an amine group and a carboxyl group attached to its glycerol. (d) at least one fatty acid attached to glycerol. (e) None of these answers is correct.

35. The primary structure of a protein from _Pelecanus occidentalis_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

36. The tertiary structure of a protein from _Pelecanus occidentalis_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

37. Enzymes in _Pelecanus occidentalis_ should be functioning to (a) break apart lipids and nucleic acids. (b) add fatty acids to glycerol. (c) produce peptide bonds. (d) break peptide bonds. (e) All of these answers probably are correct.

38. If you caught two _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and analyzed their DNA, you would expect to discover (a) some identical nucleotide sequences. (b) at least some nucleotide sequences that differed between the two individuals. (c) nucleotide sequences in their ribosomes. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

39. If you studied your chosen species in nature, you would expect to find (a) numerous individuals of that species somewhere on Earth. (b) it carrying out hydrolysis on some molecules from its environment. (c) it in association with several different species. (d) it living in a biosphere. (e) You would expect to discover all these observations about your chosen species.

40. If you analyzed one of your chosen species' cells, you would expect to find (a) glycoproteins. (b) nucleic acids with information contained in nucleotide sequences. (c) lipid bilayers and phospholipids. (d) You would find all of these things. (e) Only choices (a) and (c) are correct.

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Chapter 3 – Cell biology and metabolism

34. What would you expect to find inside a lysosomes? (a) hydrolytic enzymes (b) glycogen (c) DNA (d) All of these.

35. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles.

36. If mitochondrial membranes have the same components are other cell membranes, which of the following groups or molecules would expect to find in mitochondria? (a) phosphate groups and fatty acids. (b) glycoproteins (c) carboxyl groups and glycerol (d) cholesterol (e) All of these.

1. The energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the energy required to build the molecules. (b) is present because of the chemical structure of those molecules. (c) can be extracted by means of anabolic pathways. (d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

2. ATP is (a) a nucleotide. (b) a polypeptide. (c) a nucleic acid. (d) a citric acid cycle intermediate. (e) an enzyme that functions in the electron transport system.

3. If one enzyme reaction requires energy, that energy usually is supplied in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes such as NAD+. (e) reduced hydrogen carriers.

4. If a metabolic pathway produces potential chemical energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes such as NADPH. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

5. In general, what happens to glucose as it is moved across a cell membrane into the cytoplasm? (a) It is split into two molecules of pyruvate. (b) It is split into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. (c) It is phosphorylated with the expenditure of ATP. (d) It is oxidized into NADH. (e) It is reduced to become NADH.

6. Active transport (a) requires the expenditure of ATP. (b) requires participation of membrane proteins. (c) results in movement of molecules against the concentration gradient. (d) allows a cell to maintain concentrations that differ from the concentrations of its surroundings. (e) all of these

7. Which of the following would likely be the end products of a catabolic pathway? (a) DNA and RNA (b) polypeptides (c) carbon dioxide and water (d) lipids (e) Krebs cycle enzymes.

8. Which of the following would likely be the end products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) carbon dioxide (d) ATP (e) all of these.

9. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) CoA and NAD+ are required for the reactions to occur.

10. According to the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from food you ate this morning could end up in (a) acetyl CoA. (b) pyruvate. (c) one of the Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) carbon dioxide. (e) any of these.

11. According to the general anabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from food you ate this morning could end up in (a) glucose. (b) cell membrane. (c) genetic information stored in DNA. (d) an enzyme carrying out a Krebs cycle reaction. (e) any of these.

12. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in junk food? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

13. Assuming textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in junk food could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) soy bean protein (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

14. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up as part of a DNA strand that you pass on to one of your children? (a) Krebs cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) a 2-carbon piece carried by acetyl CoA (e) any of these.

15. At this moment, it is theoretically possible that you are (a) making DNA using nitrogen that was once in a dinosaur. (b) breathing out CO2 that could end up in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate in your favorite campus plant. (c) making polypeptides using carbon that was once in your pet cat's Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) carrying out catabolic reactions using the products of photosynthesis. (e) any of these.

16. Which of the following ingredients of junk food would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin? (a) niacin (b) diglycerides (c) sugar (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

17. In a metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for another. (b) the substrate for one enzyme is not always a substrate for another enzyme. (c) enzyme reactions can be linked. (d) some reactions may be reversible. (e) all of these.

18. In a metabolic pathway, (a) some of the participants can be recycled. (b) enzymes can carry out oxidation reaction. (c) enzymes can carry out reduction reactions. (d) intermediates can be made from proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides. (e) all of these.

19. In the Krebs cycle, (a) glucose is produced (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps (d) peptide bonds are formed (e) all of these.

20. Which of the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) water (c) carbon dioxide and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

21. The main product of glycolysis is (a) NAD+ (b) NADP+ (c) a 3-carbon molecule named pyruvate (d) glucose that is phorphorylated (e) Calvin cycle intermediates.

22. Glycolysis takes place (a) in the mitochondria. (b) in chloroplasts. (c) in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. (d) in the cytoplasm. (e) in plant cells but not in animal cells.

23. NADH and NADPH are (a) vitamins. (b) oxidized hydrogen carriers. (c) reduced hydrogen carriers. (d) electron transport chain proteins. (e) Calvin cycle intermediates.

24. NAD+ and NADP+ are (a) electron transport chain proteins. (b) Calvin cycle intermediates. (c) reduced hydrogen carriers. (d) vitamins. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

25. What happens during the electron transport system reactions? (a) ATP is converted to ADP. (b) ADP is converted to ATP. (c) Krebs cycle intermediates are produced. (d) CO2 is fixed. (e) all of these.

26. Photosynthesis occurs in (a) mitochondria (b) chloroplasts (c) lysosomes (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) Golgi apparatus.

27. Which of the following is produced during the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO2 (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) all of these.

28. Which of the following is consumed during the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H2O (b) ADP (c) glucose (d) all of these (e) none of these.

29. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light dependent reactions? (a) H2O is split. (b) CO2 is fixed. (c) ADP is converted to ATP. (d) hydrogen carriers become reduced. (e) all of these.

30. The set of reactions that take place in thylakoids require (a) sunlight. (b) water. (c) NADP+. (d) ADP (e) all of these.

31. The reactions that take place in a chloroplast stroma require (a) NADP+. (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. (c) NADPH. (d) sunlight. (e) all of these.

32. The reactions that take place in a chloroplast stroma require (a) carbon dioxide. (b) pyruvate. (c) FAD+ (d) ADP. (e) all of these.

26. Which of the following would be considered an initial step in digestion? (a) production of fatty acids from lipids (b) production of amino acids from proteins (c) production of nucleotides from DNA or RNA (d) production of glucose from glycogen (e) Any of these.

27. Polysaccharide portions of membrane glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure. (b) contain different kinds of amino acids. (c) have different nucleotide sequences. (d) are built by hydrolytic enzymes. (e) All of these.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). A through E are the molecules involved, and E1 through E4 are the enzymes.

A ------> B ------> C ------> D ------> E

**E** 1 **E** 2 **E** 3 **E** 4

The following questions concern this metabolic pathway:

28. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) B is a product of the reaction carried out by E3. (b) E3 and E4 are utilizing the same substrate. (c) The active site of E1 is the same shape as the active site of E2. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) The primary structure of E1 is probably quite different from the primary structure of E4.

29. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) The product of the reaction carried out by E3 is a substrate for E4. (b) E3 and E4 are generating the same products. (c) The active site of E3 is the same shape as the active site of E4. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) All of these answers are correct.

30. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about proteins, enzymes, and large polymer molecules, that (a) The reaction carried out by E3 could be dehydration synthesis. (b) The reaction carried out by E3 could be hydrolysis. (c) The substrates and products could be either lipids or polysaccharides. (d) The substrates and products could be amino acids or fatty acids. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

31. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) the active site of E1 binds to substrate D because of the tertiary structure of E1. (c) if these enzymatic reactions occur after a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle containing a piece of dead mouse, then they can probably be reversed, also within that same lysosomes. (d) if these reactions occur within mitochondria, then they consume vast amounts of energy and produce no usable energy for the cell as whole. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

32. From what you know about enzymes, proteins, large polymer molecules, and cell function, you can assume that (a) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

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34. The energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the energy required to build the molecules. (b) is present because of the chemical structure of those molecules. (c) can be extracted by means of anabolic pathways. (d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

36. If a metabolic pathway produces potential chemical energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes such as NADPH. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

37. In general, what happens to glucose as it is moved across a cell membrane into the cytoplasm? (a) It is split into two molecules of pyruvate. (b) It is split into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. (c) It is phosphorylated with the expenditure of ATP. (d) It is oxidized into NADH. (e) It is reduced to become NADH.

38. Active transport (a) requires the expenditure of ATP. (b) requires participation of membrane proteins. (c) results in movement of molecules against the concentration gradient. (d) allows a cell to maintain concentrations that differ from the concentrations of its surroundings. (e) all of these

39. Which of the following would likely be the end products of a catabolic pathway? (a) DNA and RNA (b) polypeptides (c) carbon dioxide and water (d) lipids (e) Krebs cycle enzymes.

40. Which of the following would likely be the end products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) carbon dioxide (d) ATP (e) all of these.

41. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) CoA and NAD+ are required for the reactions to occur.

42. According to the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from food you ate this morning could end up in (a) acetyl CoA. (b) pyruvate. (c) one of the Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) carbon dioxide. (e) any of these.

43. In a metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for another. (b) the substrate for one enzyme is not always a substrate for another enzyme. (c) enzyme reactions can be linked. (d) some reactions may be reversible. (e) all of these.

44. In a metabolic pathway, (a) some of the participants can be recycled. (b) enzymes can carry out oxidation reaction. (c) enzymes can carry out reduction reactions. (d) intermediates can be made from proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides. (e) all of these.

45. In the Krebs cycle, (a) glucose is produced (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps (d) peptide bonds are formed (e) all of these.

46. Which of the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) water (c) carbon dioxide and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). A through E are the molecules involved, and E1 through E4 are the enzymes.

A ------> B ------> C ------> D ------> E

**E** 1 **E** 2 **E** 3 **E** 4

The following questions concern this metabolic pathway:

19. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) B is a product of the reaction carried out by E3. (b) E3 and E4 are utilizing the same substrate. (c) The active site of E1 is the same shape as the active site of E2. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) The primary structure of E1 is probably quite different from the primary structure of E4.

20. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) The product of the reaction carried out by E3 is a substrate for E4. (b) E3 and E4 are generating the same products. (c) The active site of E3 is the same shape as the active site of E4. (d) The tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) All of these answers are correct.

21. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about proteins, enzymes, and large polymer molecules, that (a) The reaction carried out by E3 could be dehydration synthesis. (b) The reaction carried out by E3 could be hydrolysis. (c) The substrates and products could be either lipids or polysaccharides. (d) The substrates and products could be amino acids or fatty acids. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

22. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) the active site of E1 binds to substrate D because of the tertiary structure of E1. (c) if these enzymatic reactions occur after a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle containing a piece of dead mouse, then they can probably be reversed, also within that same lysosomes. (d) if these reactions occur within mitochondria, then they consume vast amounts of energy and produce no usable energy for the cell as whole. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

23. From what you know about enzymes, proteins, large polymer molecules, and cell function, you can assume that (a) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

_________________________________________________________________________________

24. If a metabolic pathway produces potential chemical energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) co-enzymes such as NADPH. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

25. Active transport (a) requires the expenditure of ATP. (b) requires participation of membrane proteins. (c) results in movement of molecules against the concentration gradient. (d) allows a cell to maintain concentrations that differ from the concentrations of its surroundings. (e) all of these

26. Which of the following would likely be the end products of a catabolic pathway? (a) DNA and RNA (b) polypeptides (c) carbon dioxide and water (d) lipids (e) Krebs cycle enzymes.

27. Which of the following would likely be the end products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) carbon dioxide (d) ATP (e) all of these.

28. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) CoA and NAD+ are required for the reactions to occur.

29. In a metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for another. (b) the substrate for one enzyme is not always a substrate for another enzyme. (c) enzyme reactions can be linked. (d) some reactions may be reversible. (e) all of these.

30. When a cat eats a mouse then stores mouse carbon skeletons as cat protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the mouse ends up in cat polysaccharide. (b) most of the potential energy in the mouse is consumed in the process, being used to build cat molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the cat than was originally stored in the mouse. (d) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the cat. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

31. When a mouse eats seeds then stores seed carbon skeletons as mouse protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the seeds ends up in mouse molecules. (b) most of the potential energy in the seeds is saved in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the mouse than was originally stored in the seeds. (d) most of the potential energy in the seeds is consumed in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

29. What do you know about the cells of your favorite campus plants? (a) They contain numerous membrane-bound organelles. (b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions. (c) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (d) They are eukaryotic. (e) All of these.

30. If you did an electron microscope study of the cells in your favorite campus plant, what would you expect to observe? (a) hydrolytic reactions (b) dehydration synthesis reactions (c) nuclear envelope (d) paradigms (e) None of these.

31. If you did an electron microscope study of the cells in some squirrel climbing your favorite campus oak tree, what would you expect to observe? (a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) membrane-bound vesicles (c) Golgi body (d) nuclear envelope (e) All of these.

32. What do you know about the insects on the leaves of your two favorite campus plants? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They carry out dehydration synthesis reactions. (c) They contain nucleotides with the nitrogenous base adenine. (d) Their membranes have lipids. (e) All of these.

33. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

34. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a Golgi organelle, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

35. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify rough endoplasmic reticulum, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

36. If mitochondrial membranes have the same components as other cell membranes, which of the following groups or molecules would expect to find in mitochondria? (a) phosphate groups and fatty acids (b) proteins (c) carboxyl groups and glycerol (d) All of these.

1. What happens during endocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A cellular compartment is formed. (e) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (e) All of these.

2. What happens during exocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (d) Fluids are taken into the cell. (e) All of these.

3. What happens when a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A food vacuole is formed. (d) Anabolic reactions are carried out inside the lysosome. (e) All of these.

4. What kind of functions might be performed by a membrane protein? (a) active transport (b) cell-to-cell recognition (c) facilitated diffusion (d) Any of these answers could be correct.

5. What happens during active transport? (a) Osmosis occurs. (b) Molecules are moved across a membrane against a concentration gradient. (c) Molecules diffuse quickly from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. (d) Catabolic reactions occur. (e) All of these.

6. A metabolic pathway (a) consists of several linked enzyme reactions. (b) produces carbon skeletons. (c) may consume ATP. (d) may produce a usable form of energy. (e) All of these.

7. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) All of these.

8. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in vending machine junk food? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) mitochondria (e) All of these.

9. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in vending machine junk food could you, personally, convert into ATP by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) cheese (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) All of these.

10. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a McDonald's hamburger. (b) the lipid bilayer of your campus plant. (c) a campus squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO2. (e) Any of these.

11. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids.

(c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as CO2.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates.

(e) All of these.

20. What happens during endocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A cellular compartment is formed. (e) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (e) All of these.

21. What happens during exocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (d) Fluids are taken into the cell. (e) All of these.

22. What happens when a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A food vacuole is formed. (d) Anabolic reactions are carried out inside the lysosome. (e) All of these.

23. What happens during active transport? (a) Osmosis occurs. (b) Molecules are moved across a membrane against a concentration gradient. (c) Molecules diffuse quickly from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. (d) Catabolic reactions occur. (e) All of these.

24. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions. (e) All of these.

25. During which of the following cell cycle phases would each member of a homologous pair be visible under the microscope as sister chromatids in a cell that had been stained properly? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) Any of these phases.

1. What happens during endocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) Polypeptides are sent to the Golgi. (c) Lysosomes are produced. (d) Transcription occurs. (e) All of these.

2. What happens during exocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) A vesicle membrane gets turned inside out. (c) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (d) Fluids are taken into the cell. (e) All of these.

3. What happens when a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) Transcription and translation occur. (c) Hydrolytic enzymes are added to a food vacuole. (d) Anabolic reactions are carried out inside the lysosome. (e) None of these.

4. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a Golgi organelle, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

5. A metabolic pathway (a) consists of several linked enzyme reactions. (b) produces carbon skeletons. (c) produces several substrates. (d) may produce a usable form of energy. (e) All of these.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). A through E are the molecules involved, and E1 through E4 are the enzymes.

A ------> B ------> C ------> D ------> E

**E** 1 **E** 2 **E** 3 **E** 4

The following five questions concern this metabolic pathway:

6. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) B is a product of the reaction carried out by E3. (b) E3 and E4 are utilizing the same substrate. (c) the active site of E1 is the same shape as the active site of E2. (d) the tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) the primary structure of E1 is probably quite different from the primary structure of E4.

7. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) the product of the reaction carried out by E3 is a substrate for E4. (b) E3 and E4 are generating the same products. (c) the active site of E3 is the same shape as the active site of E4. (d) the tertiary structures of E3 and E4 are identical. (e) All of these answers are correct.

8. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about proteins, enzymes, and large polymer molecules, that (a) the reaction carried out by E3 could be dehydration synthesis. (b) the reaction carried out by E3 could be hydrolysis. (c) the substrates and products could be either lipids or polysaccharides. (d) the substrates and products could be amino acids or fatty acids. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

9. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) the active site of E1 binds to substrate D because of the tertiary structure of E1. (c) if these enzymatic reactions occur after a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle containing a piece of dead mouse, then they can probably be reversed, also within that same lysosomes. (d) if these reactions occur within mitochondria, then they consume vast amounts of energy and produce no usable energy for the cell as whole. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

10. From what you know about enzymes, proteins, large polymer molecules, and cell function, you can assume that (a) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

**(** End of questions about the above metabolic pathway **.)**

11. Which of the following would you expect to find in a prokaryotic cell but not in an eukaryotic cell? (a) DNA (b) ribosomes (c) Golgi apparatus (d) plasma membrane (e) none of these answers is correct.

12. Which of the following would you expect to find in an eukaryotic cell but not in a prokaryotic cell? (a) DNA (b) ribosomes (c) Golgi apparatus (d) plasma membrane (e) none of these answers is correct.

13. Which of the following would likely be the end products of glycolysis? (a) glucose (b) NAD+ (c) pyruvate (d) RNA (e) amino acids.

14. Which of the following would likely be the end products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) carbon dioxide (d) ATP (e) All of these.

15. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true: (a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids. (b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids. (c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as CO2. (d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates. (e) All of these.

16. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in vending machine junk food could you, personally, convert into ATP by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) cheese (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) All of these.

17. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a McDonald's hamburger. (b) the lipid bilayer of some campus plant. (c) a campus squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO2. (e) Any of these.

18. If a metabolic pathway produces energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Golgi vesicles. (d) reduced Hydrogen carriers such as NADH. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

19. In metabolic pathways (a) some of the participants can be recycled. (b) enzymes can carry out oxidation reaction. (c) enzymes can carry out reduction reactions. (d) carbon skeletons can be made from proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides. (e) All of these.

20. In the citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates (c) carbon dioxide is oxidized at several steps (d) peptide bonds are formed (e) All of these.

21. Which of the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) water (c) carbon dioxide and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) All of these.

22. What happens during the electron transport system reactions? (a) ATP is converted to ADP. (b) ADP is converted to ATP. (c) carbon skeletons are produced. (d) CO2 is produced. (e) All of these.

23. A nucleotide molecule consists of (a) branching chains of glucose. (b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids. (d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group. (e) a long chain of peptide bonds.

24. The information contained in nucleic acids is to be found in (a) the sequence of amino acids. (b) the sequence of nucleotides. (c) the tertiary structure of an active site. (d) the manner in which the polymer is twisted. (e) All of these.

25. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

26. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

27. What do you know about the nucleotides within the nuclei of two different species? (a) At least some of them contain adenine. (b) Their sequences within nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They all contain nitrogen and carbon. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

28. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information "flows" from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

29. Which of the following represents RNA? (a) AATCTGCCA (b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp (c) GAUCGCUAUAC (d) GCGAATCGCAAT (e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp

30. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell's DNA, which of the following do you know would be part of a sister chromatid made during S phase of mitosis in that cell? (a) ATTGCGTAT (b) TATGGGTTA (c) TAAGCGATA (d) TAACGCTAT (e) any of these.

16. If you ate a leaf from a plant on campus and digested some of it, what compounds would likely be found in your intestine? (b) amino acids (b) glycerol (c) fatty acids (d) nucleotides (e) All of these.

17. Peptide bonds occur between (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) nucleotides in DNA. (c) nucleotides in starch or glycogen. (d) amino acids in a protein. (e) All of these.

18. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both a hydroxyl and a carboxyl group. (c) both a carboxyl and an amine group. (d) the general formula CnH2nOn. (e) one or more glycogen subunits.

19. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) one or more unsaturated fatty acids. (d) a nitrogen-containing carbon ring, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (e) All of these.

20. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined together by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

21. What do you know about the nucleic acids within _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_? (a) At least some of them contain adenine and cytosine. (b) The sequences within their nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They are polymers. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

22. The primary structure of a protein from _Pelecanus occidentalis_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

23. The tertiary structure of a protein from _Pelecanus occidentalis_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

24. Enzymes in _Pelecanus occidentalis_ should be functioning to (a) break apart lipids and nucleic acids. (b) add fatty acids to glycerol. (c) produce peptide bonds. (d) break peptide bonds. (e) All of these answers probably are correct.

25. _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_ should be using (a) hydrolysis reactions to build nucleic acids. (b) hydrolysis reactions to build polypeptides. (c) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart large molecules such as starch and glycogen. (d) dehydration synthesis reactions to build glycogen. (e) dehydration synthesis reactions to break apart lipids.

26. _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and _P. rufescens_ should be using (a) dehydration synthesis reactions to build nucleic acids. (b) dehydration synthesis reactions to build polypeptides. (c) hydrolysis reactions to break apart lipids. (d) hydrolysis reactions to break apart proteins. (e) All of these answers are correct.

27. What happens during exocytosis? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) A vesicle membrane gets turned inside out. (c) Molecules from the environment end up in the cytoplasm. (d) Fluids are taken into the cell. (e) All of these.

28. What happens when a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle? (a) A cell's environment is taken into the cell. (b) Transcription and translation occur. (c) Hydrolytic enzymes are added to a food vacuole. (d) Anabolic reactions are carried out inside the lysosome. (e) All of these.

29. In an electron microscope picture of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a Golgi organelle, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes. (b) a stack of flattened sacs. (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them. (d) a group of circular vesicles. (e) membrane-bound vesicles.

31. Which of the following would likely be the end products of glycolysis? (a) glucose (b) NAD+ (c) pyruvate (d) RNA (e) amino acids.

32. Which of the following would likely be the end products of an anabolic pathway? (a) polypeptides (b) reduced hydrogen carriers (c) carbon dioxide (d) ATP (e) All of these.

33. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true: (a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids. (b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids. (c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as CO2. (d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates. (e) All of these.

34. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in vending machine junk food could you, personally, convert into ATP by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) cheese (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) All of these.

35. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a McDonald's hamburger. (b) the lipid bilayer of some campus plant. (c) a campus squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO2. (e) Any of these.

36. If a metabolic pathway produces energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) Golgi vesicles. (d) reduced Hydrogen carriers such as NADH. (e) oxidized hydrogen carriers.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). A through E are the molecules involved, and E1 through E4 are the enzymes.

A ------> B ------> C ------> D ------> E

**E** 1 **E** 2 **E** 3 **E** 4

37. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) the active site of E1 binds to substrate D because of the tertiary structure of E1. (c) if these enzymatic reactions occur after a lysosome fuses with an endocytotic vesicle containing a piece of dead mouse, then they can probably be reversed, also within that same lysosomes. (d) if these reactions occur within mitochondria, then they consume vast amounts of energy and produce no usable energy for the cell as whole. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

38. From what you know about enzymes, proteins, large polymer molecules, and cell function, you can assume that (a) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

39. Which of the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) water (c) carbon dioxide and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) All of these.

40. What happens during the electron transport system reactions? (a) ATP is converted to ADP. (b) ADP is converted to ATP. (c) carbon skeletons are produced. (d) CO2 is produced. (e) All of these.

41. A nucleotide molecule consists of (a) branching chains of glucose. (b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids. (d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group. (e) a long chain of peptide bonds.

42. The information contained in nucleic acids is to be found in (a) the sequence of amino acids. (b) the sequence of nucleotides. (c) the tertiary structure of an active site. (d) the manner in which the polymer is twisted. (e) All of these.

43. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

44. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

45. What do you know about the nucleotides within the nuclei of two different species? (a) At least some of them contain adenine. (b) Their sequences within nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They all contain nitrogen and carbon. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

46. Which of the following represents RNA? (a) AATCTGCCA (b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp (c) GAUCGCUAUAC (d) GCGAATCGCAAT (e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp

1. What do you know about the bacteria that live on the leaves of those campus plants you wrote about? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They are prokaryotes. (c) They came from pre-existing bacteria. (d) They contain C, N, H, and O. (e) All of these.

2. What do you know about the eukaryotic cells inside those campus plants you wrote about? (a) They contain carbon skeletons. (b) Their membranes contain fatty acids. (c) They have DNA surrounded by a nuclear envelope. (d) They carry out dehydration reactions. (e) All of these.

3. Hydrolysis of starch or glycogen yields (a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (c) fatty acids (d) glucose (e) Any of these.

4. Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis? (a) glycerol and fatty acids (b) glycogen (c) glucose (d) nucleic acids (e) polypeptides.

5. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

6. What would be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) nucleic acids (b) nucleotides (c) polypeptides (d) polysaccharides (e) none of these.

7. In order to be an amino acid, a molecule must have (a) a hydroxyl group. (b) both a hydroxyl and a carboxyl group. (c) both a carboxyl and an amine group. (d) the general formula CnH2nOn. (e) one or more phosphate groups.

8. The primary structure of a polypeptide is its (a) number of fatty acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) sequence of nucleotides.

9. In order to be a nucleotide, a molecule must have (a) at least one peptide bond. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) one or more unsaturated fatty acids. (d) a nitrogen-containing carbon ring, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. (c) polypeptides and peptide bonds. (e) All of these.

10. In order to be a nucleic acid, a molecule must have (a) glycerol and fatty acids. (b) both an amine and a carboxyl group. (c) numerous peptide bonds. (d) nucleotides joined together by their phosphate and sugar groups. (e) None of these answers is correct.

11. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around. (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place. (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer. (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane. (e) None of these.

12. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) carbohydrates to be attached to proteins. (b) fatty acid ends of lipids to be facing out toward the environment. (c) fatty acid ends of lipids to be facing inward, touching cytoplasm. (d) None of these.

13. Which of the following would you expect to be able to actually see in a transmission electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell? (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) fatty acids (c) peptide bonds (d) cholesterol (e) phosphate groups.

14. Which of the following would you expect to see in a scanning electron micrograph of a _Paramecium_ , but not be able to see in a transmission electron micrograph of another _Paramecium_? (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) rows of cilia and surface ridges (c) food vacuoles (d) nucleus.

15. Once a lysosome fuses with a food vacuole, what happens? (a) Dehydration reactions begin building lipids. (b) Ribosomes inside the lysosome start making polypeptides. (c) Hydrolytic enzymes bind to substrates and carry out hydrolysis. (d) Peptide bonds are formed. (e) Nucleotides are joined together at their phosphate and sugar groups.

16. Once a polypeptide is formed inside rough endoplasmic reticulum, what could happen to it? (a) It is secreted from the cell. (b) Carbohydrates are added to it. (c) It becomes folded into its tertiary structure. (d) It ends up in a lysosome. (e) All of these events could happen, depending on the polypeptide.

17. If you put a species from the genus you are writing about this semester, into your textbook's Figure 1.1 instead of _Pelecanus occidentalis_ , what could you conclude about it? (a) It has one or more cells. (b) It contains DNA. (c) There are probably several populations of it. (d) It probably interacts with other species. (e) All of these answers are correct.

18. The primary structure of a protein from _Paramecium aurelia_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

19. The tertiary structure of a protein from _Paramecium caudatum_ would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids. (b) the sequence of its nucleotides. (c) the folding of its polypeptides. (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are joined to glycerol. (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

20. Enzymes in species of _Paramecium_ should be functioning to (a) break apart lipids and nucleic acids. (b) add fatty acids to glycerol. (c) produce peptide bonds. (d) break peptide bonds. (e) All of these answers probably are correct.

21. If all cell processes we have discussed so far occur in snakes, then both the eastern coral snake and the scarlet king snake should (a) be making polysaccharides by using hydrolytic reactions. (b) combining amino acids into polysaccharides by using hydrolytic reactions. (c) using their genetic information to construct polypeptides. (d) hydrolyzing nucleic acids into glycerol and fatty acids. (e) All of these.

22. Which of the following would be considered catabolic metabolism? (a) Hydrolysis of polypeptides. (b) Synthesis of DNA. (c) Making of a fatty acid through addition of glucose to glycerol. (d) The joining of nucleotides to make a nucleic acid. (e) Any of these.

23. Which of the following would be considered an example of anabolic metabolism? (a) Formation of peptide bonds. (b) Synthesis of DNA. (c) Making of a fatty acid through addition of glucose to glycerol. (d) The joining of nucleotides to make a nucleic acid. (e) Any of these.

Below is a diagram of a metabolic pathway that exists because of a series of enzymatic reactions (as outlined in lecture). **A** through **G** are the molecules involved, and **E1** through **E6** are the enzymes.

The following five questions concern this metabolic pathway:

1. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes and proteins, that (a) E is a product of the reactions carried out by either E5 or E4. (b) E6 and E4 are acting on the same substrate. (c) E3 and E5 are acting on the same substrate. (d) the tertiary structures of E5 and E4 are identical. (e) the primary structure of E1 is probably quite different from the primary structure of E6.

2. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about enzymes, proteins, and The Central Dogma, that (a) the product of the reaction carried out by E3 is a substrate for E4. (b) E4 and E5 are generating the same products. (c) the gene for E5 has the same sequence of nucleotides as the gene for E4. (d) the cell's supply of F requires reactions carried out by both E3 and E4. (e) All of these answers are correct.

3. You can assume from this diagram, and from what you know about proteins, enzymes, and polypeptides, that (a) the reaction carried out by E3 could be dehydration synthesis. (b) the reaction carried out by E3 could be hydrolysis. (c) the substrates and products could be either lipids or polysaccharides. (d) the substrates and products could be amino acids or fatty acids. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

4. From what you know about cell structure and function, you could assume that (a) this entire pathway could occur within a single organelle. (b) substrate A binds to the active site of E1. (c) all of the substrates A through G could end up as parts of membrane proteins. (d) if these reactions are part of the citric acid cycle, they produce reduced hydrogen carriers. (e) Any or all of these answers could be correct.

5. From what you know about enzymes, genes, and polypeptides, you can assume that (a) E3 and E6 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out dehydration synthesis using amino acids as substrates. (b) E1 and E2 have the same primary and secondary structure because they carry out linked reactions. (c) E2 and E3 have the same primary structure but not the same secondary or tertiary structure. (d) E3 and E4 could not exist unless the cell also had enzymes that carried out hydrolysis using amino acids as substrates. (e) None of these answers can be correct.

6. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information "flows" from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

7. During the process of transcription, (a) nucleotide sequences are used to determine other nucleotide sequences. (b) amino acid sequences are copied into polypeptides. (c) nucleotide sequences are copied into polypeptides. (d) a cell passes from G1 to S phase. (e) many peptide bonds are formed.

8. During the process of translation, (a) nucleotide sequences are used to determine other nucleotide sequences. (b) amino acid sequences are copied into polypeptides. (c) nucleotide sequences are used to determine amino acid sequences. (d) a cell passes from S phase to metaphase.

9. The Beadle experiments showed that (a) an organism's ability to carry out enzyme reactions depended on its genetic makeup. (b) the process of transcription produced enzymes. (c) the process of translation produced RNA. (d) metabolic pathways required energy. (e) All of these.

10. The Beadle experiments showed that (a) the phosphorylation of ADP produces energy. (b) the phosphorylation of ATP produces energy. (c) mutations could result in enzymes that did not carry out their usual reactions. (d) glucose was split into three pyruvate molecules. (e) All of these.

11. What do you know about the nucleotides within the nuclei of two different species? (a) At least some of them contain adenine. (b) Their sequences within nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They all contain nitrogen and carbon. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

12. What do you know about ATP? (a) It contains a 5-carbon sugar. (b) Potential (chemical) energy is stored in a bond between phosphate groups. (c) It is hydrolyzed by cells, resulting in the formation of ADP. (d) It participates in reactions that require energy. (e) All of these.

13. During glycolysis (a) pyruvate molecules are combined to form glucose. (b) glucose is split to form two molecules of pyruvate. (c) citric acid is formed from glucose and pyruvate. (d) citric acid is split to form two molecules of pyruvate. (e) None of these.

14. The products of glycolysis include (a) nucleotides. (b) polypeptides. (c) reduced hydrogen carriers. (d) glucose. (e) All of these.

15. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the following statements is true: (a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids. (b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids. (c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as CO2. (d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates. (e) All of these.

16. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in vending machine junk food could you, personally, convert into ATP by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) cheese (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) All of these.

17. If a metabolic pathway produces energy that is immediately available for use in anabolic reactions, such energy is usually in the form of (a) ADP. (b) ATP. (c) oxidized hydrogen carriers such as NAD+. (d) reduced hydrogen carriers such as NADH. (e) vitamins.

18. Junk food ingredients such as niacin and riboflavin function as (a) enzymes. (b) parts of hydrogen carriers. (c) parts of ADP and ATP. (d) membrane lipids. (e) recessive alleles.

19. In metabolic pathways (a) some of the participants can be recycled. (b) enzymes can carry out oxidation reaction. (c) enzymes can carry out reduction reactions. (d) carbon skeletons can be made from proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides. (e) All of these.

20. In the citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced. (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates. (c) citric acid is converted into pyruvate. (d) transcription occurs twice. (e) All of these.

21. In your textbook diagrams, the term "Cellular respiration" refers to (a) transcription. (b) translation. (c) metabolic pathways that burn carbon skeletons to produce usable energy for cells (and organisms). (d) the reduction of NAD+ and FAD+. (e) the splitting of citric acid to form pyruvate.

22. In cells and organisms, oxidation reactions generally (a) yield energy. (b) involve addition of hydrogen atoms or electrons. (c) involve removal of oxygen atoms. (d) result in the formation of nucleic acids. (e) All of these.

23. In cells and organisms, reduction reactions generally (a) require or use energy. (b) involve addition of hydrogen atoms or electrons. (c) involve loss of oxygen atoms. (d) are always accompanied by oxidation reactions. (e) All of these.

24. In cells dividing by mitosis, when are nucleotide sequences replicated? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) interphase (d) G2 (e) telophase.

25. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a nuclei acid? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

*****

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Chapter 4 – Genetics

1. Which of the following would be a gamete from an individual organism with the genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) rypigaa (b) rryyss (c) rYGasip (d) PGAirys (e) none of these.

2. Under typical conditions, which of the following could NOT be a gamete produced by an individual of genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) yysip (b) GAsiprY (c) rypigAs (d) Asg (e) all of these.

3. If you knew only the phenotype of the individual in the previous two questions, how could you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous? (a) Cross with an individual homozygous recessive at all loci. (b) Cross with an individual heterozygous at all loci. (c) Cross with an individual of identical phenotype. (d) Any of these methods would work.

4. What proportion of the gametes produce by **rrYyPpIiGgAAss** contain both a recessive **r** and a recessive **g**? (a) all of them (b) none of them (c) one half (d) one fourth (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

5. Which of the following could be an offspring from doing a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss**? (a) rraa (b) PpSs (c) YYAA (d) ggii (e) none of these.

6. If you did a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss,** what fraction of the offspring would be the correct answer genotype from question #5? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32 (e) Zero.

7. If you tried to do a Punnett Square to calculate the phenotypic ratios resulting from the following cross: **RrYyGg x RrYyGg** , how many squares would that Punnett Square have? (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

8. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are heterozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) aabb x aabb (d) AABB x AABB (e) none of these.

9. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are homozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) AABB x AABB (d) AABB x AaBb (e) none of these.

10. In a typical cross between two individuals, both of which are heterozygous at two loci, offspring phenotypic ratios differ from genotypic ratios because (a) recessive alleles are expressed in phenotypes of heterozygotes. (b) dominant alleles can hide the presence of recessive alleles. (c) alleles at non-linked loci assort independently. (d) alleles at linked loci assort independently. (e) None of these.

11. How many different offspring genotypes could result from a cross between individuals heterozygous at three loci? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

12. How many different offspring phenotypes could result from a cross between individuals heterozygous at three loci? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

13. Is it possible to do a test cross when the loci involved are linked? (a) yes (b) no (c) only if the loci are sex linked (d) The answer depends on which loci are being considered. (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

14. Alleles segregate during meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

15. Genes for different traits would assort independently at meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

16. Which of the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a test cross using linked loci? (a) independent assortment (b) segregation of alleles (c) distance between the loci (d) sex linkage (e) any of these.

17. In fruit flies, genes for traits that are sex linked (a) must also be linked. (b) must assort independently during meiosis. (c) must be on the Y chromosome. (d) must be expressed only in males. (e) all of these.

18. In offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) all males will have a recessive phenotype. (b) all females will have a recessive phenotype. (c) either sex could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype. (d) neither sex could show a recessive phenotype. (e) You can't determine the answer to this question from the information given.

19. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity in the offspring? (a) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

20. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity in the offspring?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TTAAPPIIGGRRYY x ttaappiiggrryy.

21. Here is the genotype of an individual: PPaaBb. You could view this individual as one that (a) "looks" like the dominant phenotype. (b) "looks" like the recessive phenotype. (c) "looks" like the dominant phenotype but carries a recessive allele. (d) cannot produce an offspring that "looks" like a recessive phenotype. (e) all of these.

22. In the cross **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy** , what fraction of the offspring will be TtPp? (a) one half (b) one fourth (c) 1/64 (d) 1/128 (e) you can't determine the answer from information given.

23. When you answered question #22, you multiplied fractions because (a) alleles segregate at meiosis. (b) different homologous pairs assort independently at meiosis. (c) some of the loci are linked. (d) the individuals are homozygous at some loci. (e) the individuals are heterozygous at some loci.

Here is some information about pea genes studied by Mendel:

**R** = round seed; **r** = wrinkled seed **Y** = yellow seed; **y** = green seed **P** = purple flower; **p** = white flower

**I** = inflated pod; **i** = constricted pod **G** = green pod; **g** = yellow pod **A** = axial flower; **a** = terminal flower

**S** = long stem; **s** = short stem

Answer the following questions about this cross: **RrYyPpIiggAass** x **rrYyPPIiGgAass.** You can assume complete dominance, and "kinds" means different combinations of alleles.

24. How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are represented by these genotypes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

25. How many different kinds of gametes can the plant on the right make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

26. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will have green pods? (a) none of them (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

27. What do you know about the parents of the plant on the right? (a) They both had axial flowers. (b) One had long stems. (c) One had terminal flowers. (d) Both had purple flowers. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

28. What fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short stems, and yellow pods? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) you can't answer this question from the information given.

29. In order to figure out how many different kinds of gametes are made by each of these plants, you would have to cross each of them with (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

30. If you knew only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs (b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS (c) rryyppiiggaass (d) any of these (e) none of these crosses will reveal the answer.

31. Considering all the loci, how many phenotypes could be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) you can't determine the answer to this question from the information given.

32. Which phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two plants? (a) green pods (b) terminal flowers (c) long stems (d) wrinkled seeds (e) you can't determine the answer to this question from the information given.

33. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous dominant at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/16 (c) 1/32 (d) 1/128 (e) you can't answer this question from the information given.

34. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous recessive at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/256 (e) you can't answer this question from the information given.

35. What fraction of the offspring of these plants will be heterozygous at all loci? (a) none (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

(End of pea plant questions.)

36. How many different kinds of gametes would an organism with the genotype AaBbPpGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

37. Which of the following would you expect to be a gamete made by the individual in question #36? (a) AaGg (b) ABPG (c) abpg (d) ABpg (e) any of these.

38. If you knew only that the individual in question #36 had the dominant phenotype for traits A, B, P and G, which of the following crosses would test the hypothesis that all these loci were on different homologous chromosome pairs? (a) AaBbPpGg x aabbppgg (b) AaBbPpGg x AaBbPpGg (c) AaBbPpGg x AABBPPGG (d) Any of these crosses would be an adequate test of the hypothesis. (e) None of these crosses would be an adequate test of the hypothesis.

39. What information would you get from testing the hypothesis as indicated _correctly_ in the previous question? (a) whether the traits assorted independently (b) relative distances between loci A and B (c) whether the individual was heterozygous at any of the four loci (d) all of these (e) none of these.

40. _Drosophila_ (fruit fly) eye color genes are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r). In a cross between a red-eyed male and a white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes. (b) all female offspring would have white eyes. (c) all male offspring would have red eyes. (d) half of the offspring would have red eyes regardless of sex. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

41. If there are multiple alleles in a population, indicated by a1, a2, a3 . . . an, then individuals can be (a) a1a2 (b) a4a9 (c) a3a7 (d) a1a3 (e) any of these.

42. Crossing over that contributes to genetic diversity occurs (a) between non-homologous chromosomes. (b) between sister chromatids. (c) between linked loci. (d) between multiple alleles. (e) all of these.

43. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) Chromosomes separate and the cell divides. (b) DNA is synthesized. (c) nothing (d) the cell prepares for DNA synthesis.

44. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) Chromosomes separate and the cell divides. (b) DNA is synthesized. (c) nothing (d) The cell differentiates. (e) Chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

45. Which of the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG? (a) TTACGATGC (b) AAUGCTACG (c) AATGCTACG (d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

53. Which of the following would be a gamete from an individual organism with the genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) rypigaa (b) rryyss (c) rYGasip (d) PGAirys (e) none of these.

54. Under typical conditions, which of the following could NOT be a gamete produced by an individual of genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) yysip (b) GAsiprY (c) rypigAs (d) Asg (e) all of these.

55. If you knew only the phenotype of the individual in the previous two questions, how could you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous? (a) Cross with an individual homozygous recessive at all loci. (b) Cross with an individual heterozygous at all loci. (c) Cross with an individual of identical phenotype. (d) Any of these methods would work.

55. What proportion of the gametes produce by **rrYyPpIiGgAAss** contain both a recessive **r** and a recessive **g**? (a) all of them (b) none of them (c) one half (d) one fourth (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

56. Which of the following could be an offspring from doing a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss**? (a) rraa (b) PpSs (c) YYAA (d) ggii (e) none of these.

57. If you did a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss,** what fraction of the offspring would be the correct answer genotype from question #5? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32 (e) Zero.

58. If you tried to do a Punnett Square to calculate the phenotypic ratios resulting from the following cross: **RrYyGg x RrYyGg** , how many squares would that Punnett Square have? (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

59. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are heterozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) aabb x aabb (d) AABB x AABB (e) none of these.

60. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are homozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) AABB x AABB (d) AABB x AaBb (e) none of these.

61. In a typical cross between two individuals, both of which are heterozygous at two loci, offspring phenotypic ratios differ from genotypic ratios because (a) recessive alleles are expressed in phenotypes of heterozygotes. (b) dominant alleles can hide the presence of recessive alleles. (c) alleles at non-linked loci assort independently. (d) alleles at linked loci assort independently. (e) None of these.

62. How many different offspring genotypes could result from a cross between individuals heterozygous at three loci? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

63. How many different offspring phenotypes could result from a cross between individuals heterozygous at three loci? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

64. Is it possible to do a test cross when the loci involved are linked? (a) yes (b) no (c) only if the loci are sex linked (d) The answer depends on which loci are being considered. (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

65. Alleles segregate during meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

66. Genes for different traits would assort independently at meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

67. Which of the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a test cross using linked loci? (a) independent assortment (b) segregation of alleles (c) distance between the loci (d) sex linkage (e) any of these.

68. In fruit flies, genes for traits that are sex linked (a) must also be linked. (b) must assort independently during meiosis. (c) must be on the Y chromosome. (d) must be expressed only in males. (e) all of these.

69. In offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) all males will have a recessive phenotype. (b) all females will have a recessive phenotype. (c) either sex could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype. (d) neither sex could show a recessive phenotype. (e) You can't determine the answer to this question from the information given.

70. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity in the offspring? (a) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

71. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity in the offspring?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TTAAPPIIGGRRYY x ttaappiiggrryy.

72. Here is the genotype of an individual: PPaaBb. You could view this individual as one that (a) "looks" like the dominant phenotype. (b) "looks" like the recessive phenotype. (c) "looks" like the dominant phenotype but carries a recessive allele. (d) cannot produce an offspring that "looks" like a recessive phenotype. (e) all of these.

73. In the cross **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy** , what fraction of the offspring will be TtPp? (a) one half (b) one fourth (c) 1/64 (d) 1/128 (e) you can't determine the answer from information given.

74. When you answered question #22, you multiplied fractions because (a) alleles segregate at meiosis. (b) different homologous pairs assort independently at meiosis. (c) some of the loci are linked. (d) the individuals are homozygous at some loci. (e) the individuals are heterozygous at some loci.

75. _Drosophila_ (fruit fly) eye color genes are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r). In a cross between a red-eyed male and a white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes. (b) all female offspring would have white eyes. (c) all male offspring would have red eyes. (d) half of the offspring would have red eyes regardless of sex. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

32. Which of the following would be a gamete from an individual organism with the genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) rypigaa (b) rryyss (c) rYGasip (d) PGAirys (e) none of these.

33. Under typical conditions, which of the following could NOT be a gamete produced by an individual of genotype **rrYyPpIiGgAAss?** (a) yysip (b) GAsiprY (c) rypigAs (d) Asg (e) all of these.

34. If you knew only the phenotype of the individual in the previous two questions, how could you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous? (a) Cross with an individual homozygous recessive at all loci. (b) Cross with an individual heterozygous at all loci. (c) Cross with an individual of identical phenotype. (d) Any of these methods would work.

35. What proportion of the gametes produce by **rrYyPpIiGgAAss** contain both a recessive **r** and a recessive **g**? (a) all of them (b) none of them (c) one half (d) one fourth (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

36. Which of the following could be an offspring from doing a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss**? (a) rraa (b) PpSs (c) YYAA (d) ggii (e) none of these.

37. If you did a test cross with **rrYyPpIiGgAAss,** what fraction of the offspring would be the correct answer genotype from question #36? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32 (e) Zero.

38. If you tried to do a Punnett Square to calculate the phenotypic ratios resulting from the following cross: **RrYyGg x RrYyGg** , how many squares would that Punnett Square have? (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

39. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are heterozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) aabb x aabb (d) AABB x AABB (e) none of these.

40. Which of the following crosses will produce offspring all of which are homozygous at all loci? (a) aabb x AABB (b) AaBb x AaBb (c) AABB x AABB (d) AABB x AaBb (e) none of these.

41. In a typical cross between two individuals, both of which are heterozygous at two loci, offspring phenotypic ratios differ from genotypic ratios because (a) recessive alleles are expressed in phenotypes of heterozygotes. (b) dominant alleles can hide the presence of recessive alleles. (c) alleles at non-linked loci assort independently. (d) alleles at linked loci assort independently. (e) None of these.

42. How many different offspring genotypes could result from a cross between two individuals, both heterozygous at three loci? (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 27 (d) 81 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

43. How many different offspring phenotypes could result from a cross between two individuals, both heterozygous at three loci? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

44. Is it possible to do a test cross when the loci involved are linked? (a) yes (b) no (c) only if the loci are sex linked (d) The answer depends on which loci are being considered. (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

45. Alleles segregate during meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are at the same locus on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

46. Genes for different traits would assort independently at meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous chromosome pairs. (b) they are at different loci. (c) they are on the same homologous chromosome pair. (d) they are sex-linked (e) they are linked.

47. Which of the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a test cross using linked loci? (a) independent assortment (b) segregation of alleles (c) distance between the loci (d) sex linkage (e) any of these.

48. In fruit flies, genes for traits that are sex linked (a) must also be linked. (b) must assort independently during meiosis. (c) must be on the Y chromosome. (d) must be expressed only in males. (e) all of these.

49. In offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) all males will have a recessive phenotype. (b) all females will have a recessive phenotype. (c) either sex could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype. (d) neither sex could show a recessive phenotype. (e) You can't determine the answer to this question from the information given.

50. Here is the genotype of an individual: PPaaBb. You could view this individual as one that (a) "looks" like the dominant **P** phenotype. (b) "looks" like the recessive **a** phenotype. (c) "looks" like the dominant **B** phenotype but carries a recessive allele. (d) cannot produce an offspring that "looks" like a recessive phenotype. (e) all of these.

51. _Drosophila_ (fruit fly) eye color genes are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r). In a cross between a red-eyed male and a white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes. (b) all female offspring would have white eyes. (c) all male offspring would have red eyes. (d) half of the offspring would have red eyes regardless of sex. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

12. During which of the following cell cycle phases would a homologous pair of chromosomes be replicated? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) Any of these phases.

13. During which of the following cell cycle phases would each member of a homologous pair be visible under the microscope as sister chromatids in a cell that had been stained properly? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) Any of these phases.

14. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) Any of these.

15. If a mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

16. What eventually happens to the genetic information in sister chromatids of dividing somatic cells in a campus squirrel? (a) It dies. (b) It could end up in baby squirrels. (c) It is replicated during G1 by catabolic reactions. (d) It is replicated during G2 by anabolic reactions. (e) Any of these.

17. What eventually happens to the genetic information in sister chromatids of dividing germinal cells in a campus squirrel? (a) It dies. (b) It could end up in baby squirrels. (c) It is replicated during G2 by catabolic reactions. (d) It is replicated during G1 by anabolic reactions. (e) Any of these.

18. During prophase (a) chromosomes separate. (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies. (d) the cell actually divides into two. (e) DNA is replicated.

19. During metaphase of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes separate. (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies. (d) DNA is replicated. (e) the cell actually divides into two.

20. During anaphase of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes separate. (b) DNA is replicated. (c) the cell actually divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. (d) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (e) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

21. During cytokinesis of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (b) the cell actually divides into two. (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) chromosomes separate. (e) None of these processes occur in somatic cells.

22. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair. (e) have twice as many sister chromatids as the parent cell.

23. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) can have linked loci. (e) All of these.

24. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

25. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that also happens during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

26. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information "flows" from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

NOTE: In the following four questions, "kinds" means different combinations of alleles.

27. How many different kinds of gametes would AaBbrr be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

28. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question #27? (a) aabbrr (c) Aab (c) abr (d) aRr (e) none of these.

29. How many different kinds of gametes would AaDdGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

30. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #29? (a) adg (b) ADG (c) adG (d) AdG (e) any of these.

31. What do you know about the loci given in question #29? (a) They are on different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) The alleles at those loci probably assort independently. (c) They are on the same homologous pair of chromosomes. (d) Their alleles are replicated during G2 in somatic cells but during G1 in germinal cells. (e) Gametes made by this individual contain both members of alleles at a given locus.

32. If the individual referred to in both question #27 and question #29 is actually the same individual organism, then what do you know about the species to which this individual belongs? (a) It has at least 4 different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) It can make at least 32 different kinds of gametes. (c) the A and G loci are linked. (d) All of these. (e) None of these.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. Plant #1 is on the left; plant #2 is on the right. The traits are:

Tall stem = **T** ; dwarf stem = **t** Axial flower = **A** ; terminal flower = **a**

Purple flower = **P** ; white flower = **p** Inflated pod = **I** ; constricted pod = **i**

Green pod = **G** ; yellow pod = **g** Round seed = **R** ; wrinkled seed = **r**

Yellow seed = **Y** ; green seed = **y**

The next six questions concern this cross: TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAappIiGgRrYy

33. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

34. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answer to question #33? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

35. Why did you choose the right answer to #34? (a) Alleles at all the loci assort independently. (b) The offspring phenotypes occur in the same proportions as the kinds of gametes made by plant #2. (c) The genotype you chose has a number of linked loci. (d) Alleles at the loci of the genotype you chose assort independently. (e) None of these answers is correct.

36. What fraction of the purple-flowered plants resulting from this cross also will have wrinkled green seeds? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/64 (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

37. What fraction of the white-flowered plants resulting from this cross also will have green inflated pods? (a) 1/32 (b) 3/16 (c) 9/16 (d) 1/8 (e) You cannot determine the answer from the information given.

38. What do you know about the parents of plant #2? (a) At least one of them had green pods. (b) Both of them could have been tall. (c) Both of them could have been dwarf stemmed plants. (d) Answers (a), (b), and (c) are all correct. (e) You cannot determine the answer from the information given.

41. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGCGTATG, what might have happened? (a) selection (b) frame shift mutation (c) inversion (d) non-random interbreeding (e) any of these.

42. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might be the result? (a) an enzyme would not function properly (b) nothing (c) selection against the offspring (d) an altered phenotype (e) any of these.

43. What is the product of the process known as transcription? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) protein (d) mutation (e) any of these.

44. What is the product of the process known as translation? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) protein (d) mutation (e) any of these.

51. Assuming there is random interbreeding among offspring, no selection, and all genotypes are equally fit, what will be the frequency of the recessive **a** allele after ten generations of crossing between the descendents of the cross in question #50? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) none of these.

52. If, after ten generations of interbreeding among the descendents of the individuals in question number 50, the frequency of the dominant **I** allele is 0.87, what do you know has happened? (a) you can't answer this question from the information given (b) selection has occurred against genes at the G locus (c) interbreeding has not been random (d) all phenotypes are equally fit.

53. If an offspring from the cross in question #50 ended up as a YY genotype, what might be the explanation? (a) transcription (b) translation (c) selection (d) mutation (e) any of these.

54. If you started with the cross in question #50 and selected against the dominant A phenotype for several generations, what would happen to allele frequencies at the Y locus? (a) recessive allele frequency would increase (b) recessive allele frequency would decrease (c) nothing (d) you can't answer this question from the information given.

55. If an organism had a homologous pair of chromosomes aBCde and AbcDE, but its offspring had chromosomes that looked like adCBe and abcde, what has happened? (a) independent assortment (b) chromosomal mutation (c) selection (d) evolution (e) non-random breeding.

60. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

61. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.84, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.16 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.84 (d) zero (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

62. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

63. In the populations of the previous three questions, what events might lead to results other than those expected? (a) transcription (b) translation (c) independent assortment (d) crossing over (e) non-random interbreeding.

26. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) Any of these.

27. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair. (e) have twice as many sister chromatids as the parent cell.

28. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) can have linked loci. (e) All of these.

29. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

30. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that also happens during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

NOTE: In the following four questions, "kinds" means different combinations of alleles.

31. How many different kinds of gametes would AabbRR be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

32. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question #40? (a) aabbrr (c) Aab (c) abr (d) aRR (e) none of these.

33. How many different kinds of gametes would AaddGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

34. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #33? (a) adg (b) AdG (c) adG (d) AdG (e) any of these.

35. What do you know about the loci given in question #33? (a) They are on different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) The alleles at those loci probably assort independently. (c) They are on the same homologous pair of chromosomes. (d) Their alleles are replicated during G2 in somatic cells but during G1 in germinal cells. (e) Gametes made by this individual contain both members of alleles at a given locus.

36. If the individual referred to in both question #31 and question #33 is actually the same individual organism, then what do you actually know for certain about the species to which this individual belongs? (a) It has at least 6 different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) It can make at least 32 different kinds of gametes. (c) the A and G loci are linked. (d) All of these. (e) None of these.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. Plant #1 is on the left; plant #2 is on the right. The traits are:

Tall stem = **T** ; dwarf stem = **t** Axial flower = **A** ; terminal flower = **a**

Purple flower = **P** ; white flower = **p** Inflated pod = **I** ; constricted pod = **i**

Green pod = **G** ; yellow pod = **g** Round seed = **R** ; wrinkled seed = **r**

Yellow seed = **Y** ; green seed = **y**

The next six questions concern this cross: TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAappIiGgRrYy

37. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

38. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answer to question #46? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

39. Why did you choose the right answer to question #38? (a) Alleles at all the loci assort independently. (b) The offspring phenotypes occur in the same proportions as the kinds of gametes made by plant #1. (c) The genotype you chose has a number of linked loci. (d) Alleles at the loci of the genotype you chose assort independently. (e) None of these answers is correct.

40. What fraction of the white-flowered plants resulting from this cross also will have green inflated pods? (a) 1/32 (b) 3/16 (c) 9/16 (d) 1/8 (e) You cannot determine the answer from the information given.

31. In a cell dividing by mitosis, when are nucleotide sequences replicated? (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) interphase (d) G2 (e) telophase.

32. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a polynucleotide? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

33. During which of the following cell cycle phases would each member of a homologous pair be visible under the microscope as sister chromatids in a cell that had been stained properly? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) Any of these phases.

34. During anaphase of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes separate. (b) DNA is replicated. (c) the cell actually divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. (d) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (e) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

35. During cytokinesis of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (b) the cell actually divides into two. (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) chromosomes separate. (e) None of these processes occur in somatic cells.

36. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) tetrad formation (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

37. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that also happens during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

38. When would you expect to see tetrads? (a) mitosis prophase (b) mitosis anaphase (c) meiosis prophase (d) meiosis anaphase II (e) mitosis cytokinesis.

39. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (d) enter G1 before they enter M.

40. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

41. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 46.

The next few questions concern the cross: **ttAaPpIiggRryy** (Plant #1) x **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy** (Plant #2).

22. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

23. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

24. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to the previous two questions? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

25. Why would you use the plant you chose for the answer to the previous question? (a) Offspring phenotype proportions would reflect parent gamete kinds and proportions. (b) Offspring genotype ratios would be 3:1. (c) Some of the loci in the parent plants are linked. (d) You could detect crossing over in this particular mating. (e) None of the loci are linked.

26. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAAPPiiggRRYY x TTaaPPiiGGRRYY (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

27. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAAPPiiggRRYY x TTaaPPiiGGRRYY (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

28. In which of the following crosses will offspring phenotypes reveal the kinds and proportions of gametes being made by one parent? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

29. Which of the following crosses will best demonstrate independent assortment? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

30. Why do the alleles at these 7 loci assort independently? (a) They are linked. (b) They are on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) They are on sister chromatids. (d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

31. If you actually knew the genetic makeup of all individuals in this question, which of the following crosses will demonstrate segregation of alleles?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

32. Which of the following could be one of the gametes made by an individual of genotype DdMmRrQq? (a) DMrq (b) DdMmRrQq (c) dmrq (d) dMmQq (e) any of these.

33. What does the notation AaTTGgDdMmRrQq tell you about the species represented? (a) It has at least four homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) Some of its genes are on the same homologous pair. (c) Some of it genetic diversity will result from crossing over. (d) Some of its genetic diversity will result from independent assortment. (e) All of these answers are correct.

34. How many different kinds of gametes would an individual of genotype AaTTGgDdMmRrQq be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 32 (e) 64.

35. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in the previous question? (a) aTgDmrq (b) ATGDMRQ (c) atgdMRQ (d) ATGdmRq (e) any of these.

36. The following alleles all exist in a population: a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5. If you were studying biological diversity, which of the following genotypes would you expect to discover in that population? (a) a2a3 (b) a1a4 (c) a5a5 (d) a1a5 (e) Any of these.

37. If the alleles a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5 exist in a population and are completely dominant over one another in the order listed, then which of the following individuals should exhibit the a2 phenotype? (a) a1a5 (b) a2a4 (c) a1a2 (d) a4a5 (e) None of them.

38. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

39. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous dominant (b) males can exhibit a recessive phenotype (c) males can express the dominant phenotype (d) both sexes can exhibit either dominant or recessive phenotype (e) all of these.

40. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATTGCTATG, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) frame-shift mutation (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) any of these.

41. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) frame-shift mutation (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) insertion.

42. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATTGGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) insertion and frame-shift mutation (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) all of these.

43. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) deletion and frame-shift mutation (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) any of these.

44. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might be the result? (a) an enzyme would not function properly (b) nothing (c) an altered genotype (d) an altered phenotype (e) any of these.

45. A start codon is an example of (a) a structural gene. (b) a nucleotide sequence that functions as punctuation during gene expression. (c) a frame-shift mutation. (d) an inversion. (e) a substitution.

46. The sickle gene is a good example of (a) multiple alleles in a population. (b) a pleiotropic mutation (c) multiple-factor inheritance. (d) a chromosomal mutation. (e) all of these.

47. Human skin color is a good example of (a) multiple alleles in a population. (b) a pleiotropic mutation (c) multiple-factor inheritance. (d) a chromosomal mutation. (e) all of these.

47. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell's DNA, which of the following do you know would be part of a sister chromatid made during S phase of mitosis in that cell? (a) ATTGCGTAT (b) TATGGGTTA (c) TAAGCGATA (d) TAACGCTAT (e) any of these.

48. During anaphase of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes separate. (b) DNA is replicated. (c) the cell actually divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. (d) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (e) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

49. During cytokinesis of a somatic cell (a) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (b) the cell actually divides into two. (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) chromosomes separate. (e) None of these processes occur in somatic cells.

50. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) tetrad formation (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

51. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that also happens during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

52. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, which of the following would you expect to occur in campus plants, anemones, sharks, and the tapeworm inside the other students in our class? (a) transcription and translation (b) dehydration synthesis carried out by hydrolytic enzymes (c) the citric acid cycle producing pyruvate (d) exocytotic vesicles fusing with rough endoplasmic reticulum to release their contents (e) All of these.

53. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, which of the following would you expect to occur in clownfish, cnidarians, campus squirrels, and your chosen species? (a) substrates binding to active sites (b) nucleotide sequences transcribed into polypeptides (c) amino acid sequences translated into sequences of A, T, C, and G (d) pyruvate being produced by oxidative phosphorylation (e) All of these.

The next few questions concern the cross: **ttAaPpIiggRryy** (Plant #1) x **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy** (Plant #2).

70. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to determine how many loci of each plant were heterozygous? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

71. Why would you use the plant you chose for the answer to the previous question? (a) Offspring phenotype proportions would reflect parent gamete kinds and proportions. (b) Offspring genotype ratios would be 3:1. (c) Some of the loci in the parent plants are linked. (d) You could detect crossing over in this particular mating. (e) None of the loci are linked.

72. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will be heterozygous at the T, A, and Y loci? (a) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) you can't answer this question from the information given.

73. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will be homozygous recessive at the T, A, and Y loci? (a) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) you can't answer this question from the information given.

74. What fraction of the offspring from these plants will exhibit crossing over between the T and Y loci? (a) 1/16 (b) 1/64 (c) 1/128 (d) all of them (e) none of them.

75. Why do the alleles at the 7 loci shown for these plants assort independently? (a) They are linked. (b) They are on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) They are on sister chromatids. (d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

76. If the alleles a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5 exist in a population and are completely dominant over one another in the order listed, then which of the following individuals should exhibit the a2 phenotype? (a) a1a5 (b) a2a4 (c) a1a2 (d) a4a5 (e) None of them.

77. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

78. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous dominant (b) males can exhibit a recessive phenotype (c) males can express the dominant phenotype (d) both sexes can exhibit either dominant or recessive phenotype (e) All of these.

79. A start codon is an example of (a) a structural gene. (b) a nucleotide sequence that functions as punctuation during gene expression. (c) a frame-shift mutation. (d) an inversion. (e) a substitution.

80. The sickle gene is a good example of (a) multiple alleles in a population. (b) a pleiotropic mutation (c) multiple-factor inheritance. (d) a chromosomal mutation. (e) all of these.

81. Human skin color is a good example of (a) multiple alleles in a population. (b) a pleiotropic mutation (c) multiple-factor inheritance. (d) a chromosomal mutation. (e) all of these.

82. What happens when the population of a species increases? (a) Genetic diversity decreases. (b) Genetic diversity increases. (c) Genetic diversity stays about the same as it was in small populations. (d) Mutation rates increase. (e) Disruptive selection occurs.

83. Mutations affecting phenotype and reproductive success can be expected to occur (a) in structural genes. (b) in regulatory genes. (c) in genes for tRNA. (d) in nucleotide sequences that function as "punctuation marks" during gene expression. (e) All of these answers are correct.

84. What observations lead scientists to conclude that humans are evolving fairly rapidly? (a) Human populations are increasing rapidly. (b) Human populations are increasing far more rapidly in some areas of the world than in others. (c) Human populations will stop growing before the mass of humanity reaches the mass of Planet Earth. (d) Human genetic diversity is increasing rapidly. (e) All of these factors contribute to scientist's conclusions.

85. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

86. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.84, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.16 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.84 (d) zero (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

87. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

26. During which of the following cell cycle phases would each member of a homologous pair be visible under the microscope as sister chromatids in a cell that had been stained properly? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) Any of these phases.

27. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 46.

28. During anaphase of a cell dividing by mitosis (a) chromosomes separate. (b) DNA is replicated. (c) the cell actually divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. (d) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell. (e) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

29. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) tetrad formation (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) synapsis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

30. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that also happens during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) sister chromatids separate.

31. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G1 before they enter M.

32. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

33. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell's DNA, which of the following do you know would be part of a sister chromatid made during S phase of mitosis in that cell? (a) ATTGCGTAT (b) TATGGGTTA (c) TAAGCGATA (d) TAACGCTAT (e) any of these.

34. Which of the following could be one of the gametes made by an individual of genotype DDMmrrQq? (a) DMrq (b) DdMmRrQq (c) dmrq (d) dMmQq (e) any of these.

35. What fraction of the gametes produced by the individual in question #34 would be of the kind that is the correct answer you chose? (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/16 (d) All of them. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

36. What does the notation AaTTGgDdMmRrQq tell you about the species represented? (a) It has at least four homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) Some of its genes are on the same homologous pair. (c) Some of its genetic diversity will result from independent assortment. (d) If thousands of individuals are interbreeding, some could be homozygous recessive for at least five traits. (e) All of these answers are correct.

37. How many different kinds of gametes would an individual of genotype AaMmRrQq be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

The next few questions concern the cross: **TtAappIiggRryy** (Plant #1) x **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy** (Plant #2).

38. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

39. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

40. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to the previous two questions? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

41. Why would you expect the alleles at these 7 loci assort independently? (a) They are linked. (b) They are on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) They are on sister chromatids. (d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes. (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

42. Which of the following crosses will best demonstrate independent assortment?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

43. In which of the following crosses will offspring phenotypes reveal the kinds and proportions of gametes being made by one parent? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

44. If you actually knew the genetic makeup of all individuals in this question, which of the following crosses will demonstrate segregation of alleles?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

The next few questions concern the cross: **TtAappIiggRryy** (Plant #1) x **TtAaPpIiGgRrYy** (Plant #2).

45. What fraction of the offspring from this mating will exhibit the dominant phenotype for both the **T** and the **R** traits? (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/16 (d) 9/16 (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

46. What fraction of the offspring from this mating will be homozygous recessive for both the **T** and **Y** traits? (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

47. What is the size of the Punnett Square you would have to make to determine all the possible outcomes from this mating? (a) 2 x 2 (b) 8 x 8 (c) 16 x 32 (d) 16 x 128 (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

48. What fraction of the offspring from this mating will demonstrate the dominant **A** and **R** phenotypes but be carrying a recessive allele? (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/16 (d) 9/16 (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

49. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

50. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous dominant (b) males can exhibit a recessive phenotype (c) males can express the dominant phenotype (d) both sexes can exhibit either dominant or recessive phenotype (e) all of these.

1. What does the notation AaTTGgDdMmRrQq tell you about the species represented? (a) It has at least four homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) Some of its genes are on the same homologous pair. (c) Some of its genetic diversity will result from crossing over. (d) Some of its genetic diversity will result from independent assortment. (e) All of these answers are correct.

2. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in the previous question? (a) aTgDmrq (b) ATGDMRQ (c) atgdMRQ (d) ATGdmRq (e) any of these.

3. The following alleles all exist in a population: a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5. If you were studying biological diversity, which of the following genotypes would you expect to discover in that population? (a) a2a3 (b) a1a4 (c) a5a5 (d) a1a5 (e) Any of these.

4. If the alleles a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5 exist in a population and are completely dominant over one another in the order listed, then which of the following individuals should exhibit the a2 phenotype? (a) a1a5 (b) a2a4 (c) a1a2 (d) a4a5 (e) None of them.

5. Human skin color is a good example of (a) multiple alleles in a population. (b) the effects of crossing over. (c) multiple-factor inheritance. (d) a chromosomal mutation. (e) all of these.

6. How many different offspring genotypes can be produced by random breeding and independent assortment from a starting population of peas, all with a single genotype **RrYyPpIiGgAaSs**? (a) one (b) over a hundred (c) over two thousand (d) millions (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

7. How many different offspring phenotypes can be produced by random breeding and independent assortment from a starting population of peas, all with a single genotype **RrYyPpIiGgAaSs**? (a) one (b) over a hundred (c) over two thousand (d) millions (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

8. What proportion of the offspring from the cross GgCcLl **AaBb x** GgCcLl **AaBb** will be of the same genotype as their parents? (a) none (b) 1/32 (c) 1/243 (d) all of them (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

9. What proportion of the offspring from the cross GgCcLl **AaBb x** GgCcLl **AaBb** will be of the same phenotype as their parents? (a) none (b) 1/32 (c) 1/243 (d) all of them (e) You can't answer this question from the information given.

10. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATTGCTATG, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) duplication (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) any of these.

11. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) duplication (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) insertion.

12. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATTGGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) duplication (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) all of these.

13. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGCGTAT, what might have happened? (a) deletion (b) duplication (c) inversion (d) substitution (e) any of these.

14. If an organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had the same gene with the homologous sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might be the result? (a) An enzyme would not function properly. (b) nothing (c) an altered genotype (d) an altered phenotype (e) Any of these.

15. Which of the following represents mRNA? (a) AATCTGCCA (b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp (c) GAUCGCUAUAC (d) GCGAATCGCAAT (e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp.

16. How many amino acids would you expect to be present in the polypeptide resulting from expression of the gene ATACCGATTCAGCAT? (a) one (b) five (c) fifteen (d) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

17. Which of the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG? (a) TTACGATGC (b) AAUGCTACG (c) AATGCTACG (d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

18. Which of the following sequences would be considered a translation of some DNA sequence? (a) AATGCTACG (b) UUACGAUGC (c) rRNA (d) mRNA (e) ala-lys-met-val-glu.

19. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.36, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.40 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.72 (e) 1.00.

20. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.84, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.16 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.84 (d) zero (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

21. What is meant by the term "gene frequency"? (a) Decimal fraction proportion of an allele in a population. (b) Decimal fraction proportion of a genotype in a population. (c) Decimal fraction proportion of a phenotype in a population. (d) The 2pq component of a Hardy-Weinberg equation. (e) All of these answers could be correct.

22. You should be able to predict an allele's frequency in a population if you know the (a) frequency of the recessive phenotype. (b) frequency of the dominant phenotype. (c) frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype. (d) proportion of homozygous dominant and heterozygotes. (e) All of these answers are correct.

23. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e) You can't determine the answer from the information given.

24. If you studied alleles in a population and discovered that the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium correctly described your results, you would conclude that (a) directional selection was occurring. (b) mating among members of this population was truly random. (c) disruptive selection was occurring. (d) there was evidence for mutation. (e) Any of these answers could be correct.

*****

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Chapter 5 – Organismic biology

First exam – spring, 2011:

1. If you saw the following phrase— _Euphydryas perdiccas_ (Edwards, 1862)—in a paper from the 2011 primary literature, how would you interpret it? (a) Edwards put this species in another genus. (b) Edwards named this species _Euphydryas perdiccas._ (c) The name and date refer to a reference in the bibliography section of this paper. (d) Edwards put this species in _Euphydryas_ but gave it another specific epithet. (e) All of these answers are correct.

2. We used the genus _Pelecanus_ in lecture as an illustration of congeneric species. From this lesson, what should you know about congeners? (a) They are described by the same individual. (b) De-scriptions of congeners are published in the same year. (c) They could easily have different describers and come from different places. (d) Their specific epithets are the same.

3. From seeing and using all the scientific names in this course so far, you know that specific epithets (a) may be used to honor people. (b) sometimes reflect the geographic location of a species. (c) are italicized. (d) were used by Linnaeus. (e) All of these answers are correct.

4. Members of a paraphyletic group (a) do not share a most recent common ancestor. (b) probably posses both ancestral and derived characters. (c) do not share homologous structures. (d) share analogous structures but not homologous ones. (e) share homologous structures but not analogous ones.

5. Members of a monophyletic group (a) share a most recent common ancestor. (b) share derived characters. (c) share apomorphic characters. (d) probably have ancestral characters. (e) All of these answers are correct.

6. Members of a polyphyletic group (a) are described by the same scientists. (b) do not share a single common ancestor. (c) include an ancestral taxon and all its descendents. (d) usually are congeners. (e) share derived characters but not ancestral ones.

7. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a paraphyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) this paraphyletic group could be changed to a monophyletic group by removing one of the species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

8. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a monophyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) _Glossina morsitans_ would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) each of the genera listed contain only a single species. (e) None of these answers are correct.

9. Evidence used to construct a phylogeny could be (a) structural features. (b) sequences of nucleotides in DNA. (c) behavioral traits. (d) characteristics of ecological niches. (e) all of these.

10. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a polyphyletic group, then (a) they do not share an immediate common ancestor. (b) their common ancestor is a member of one of the genera listed. (c) any _Glossina_ species would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

11. Taxa whose relationships are shown as a polytomy (a) do not share a common ancestor. (b) share derived characters but not ancestral ones. (c) have evolutionary relationships that are not yet clear. (d) share ancestral characters but not derived ones. (e) hare analogous structures but not homologous ones.

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12. Homologous structures (a) are identical in function. (b) have the same evolutionary origin. (c) are usually if not always synapomorphic. (d) have different evolutionary origins but similar functions.

13. Analogous structures (a) have similar functions. (b) have the same evolutionary origin. (c) are usually if not always ancestral. (d) have the same evolutionary origins but different functions. (e) can be convergent (homoplasies) but cannot be homologous.

14. Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to (a) possession of shared ancestral characters. (b) homoplasies or convergent morphology. (c) mistakes by describers. (d) characters shared with an outgroup.

15. Members of Bacteria and Archaea are similar in that they both (a) have histones associated with their DNA. (b) have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. (c) lack a membranous envelope around their DNA. (d) can be killed with antibiotics. (e) All of these answers are correct.

16. In spite of their similarities (a) Bacteria have histones associated with their DNA but Archaea do not. (b) Archaea have singular circular chromosomes but Bacteria do not. (c) Archaea have a nuclear envelope but Bacteria do not. (d) Bacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell walls but Archaea do not. (e) All of these answers are correct.

17. A phylogeny based on genes for rRNA shows (a) humans are more closely related to Archaea than to fungi. (b) fungi are more closely related to Bacteria than to plants. (c) Bacteria and Archaea are more closely related to one another than either group is to plants. (d) humans and plants are more closely related to Archaea than they are to Bacteria.

18. A phylogeny based on genes for rRNA shows (a) prokaryotes living in extreme environments are more closely related to one another than to Bacteria. (b) mitochondria of eukaryotic organisms are more closely related to Bacteria than to eukaryotes. (c) chloroplasts of plants and algae are more closely related to Bacteria than to either plants or algae. (d) All of these answers are correct.

19. Based on information presented so far in lecture, which of the following organisms are you most likely to find living in very hot and salty water? (a) algae (b) diatoms (c) Archaea (d) Bacteria.

20. Based on information presented so far in lecture, which of the following organisms are most likely to be triploblastic? (a) algae (b) Archaea (c) radiolarians (d) the mollusc that secreted your shell (e) foraminiferans.

21. For which of the following groups would lipopolysaccharide be an important character to be used in identification? (a) Archaea (b) Bacteria (c) radiolarians and foraminiferans (d) the mollusc that secreted your shell (e) colonial algae but not filamentous algae.

22. _Paramecium bursaria_ , _Paramecium tetraurelia,_ and _Paramecium caudatum_ (a) are congeners. (b) are confamilials. (c) probably share small subunit rRNA nucleotide sequences. (d) probably share both ancestral and apomorphic characters. (e) All of these answers are correct.

23. In a phylogeny of ciliates, _Paramecium tetraurelia,_ and _Paramecium caudatum_ be (a) members of a clade. (b) sister taxa. (c) members of a monophyletic group. (d) shown as part of a polytomy. (e) All of these answers are correct.

24. When constructing phylogenies, outgroups usually are chosen (a) because they are part of a polytomy. (b) they provide evidence for ancestral conditions or characters. (c) they exhibit shared derived traits common to some members of the ingroup. (d) they exhibit convergences or homoplasies. (e) All of these reasons are valid ones for choosing an outgroup.

25. Five different bacterial species should exhibit (a) different growth characteristics, depending on the culture medium. (b) similar ability to grow on some culture media but not on others. (c) either similar or different effects on the culture medium being used to grow them. (d) either Gram positive or Gram negative staining, depending on the species. (e) All of these answers are correct.

26. Which of the following characters should a Gram positive bacterial species have that a Gram negative one does not? (a) ribosomes (b) nuclear envelope (c) thick outer peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall (d) a thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides.

27. Which of the following components of a bacterial cell wall is most likely to contribute to an infection or produce a pathological response from another organism? (a) ribosomes (b) nuclear envelope (c) thick outer peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall (d) a thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides.

28. In different species, homologous strands of DNA could differ in nucleotide sequence because of (a) deletions. (b) insertions. (c) substitutions. (d) inversions. (e) All of these answers are correct.

29. Alignment of DNA nucleotide sequences obtained from different taxa produces (a) a phylogeny with numerous polytomies. (b) homoplasies and convergent characters. (c) a character matrix (= table) with maximum match between parts of homologous genes. (d) paraphyletic groups.

30. In the life cycle of _Laminaria_ species, the products of meiosis are (a) zoospores. (b) eggs. (c) sperm. (d) male gametophytes. (e) sporophytes.

31. In _Laminaria_ species, sporophytes produce (a) male gametophytes. (b) female gametophytes. (c) more sporophytes. (d) sperm and eggs. (e) zoospores.

32. In the sexual phase of a _Paramecium_ species' life cycle, which of the following function as gametes? (a) zoospores. (b) sporophytes. (c) veligers. (d) haploid nuclei. (e) macronuclei.

33. In spite of their differences, algae taxa are similar in that they all (a) have single-celled stages. (b) are triploblastic. (c) go through a veliger stage. (d) develop from a gastrula. (e) are heterotrophic.

34. In spite of their similarities, algae taxa are different in that (a) some have larval stages and others do not. (b) the shapes of their cells vary. (c) some go through a veliger stage but others pass through a trochophore. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

35. Which of the following features would you use to distinguish one genus of algae from another? (a) shape of the colony (b) number of cells in a colony (c) shape of cells (d) number of flagella (e) All of these.

36. If you collected a trochophore larva and kept it alive through metamorphosis, you would expect it to become a (a) mollusc. (b) _Laminaria_ sporophyte. (c) lancelet. (d) member of Apicomplexa. (e) A trochophore could metamorphose into any of these organisms.

37. If you collected a trochophore lavae and kept it alive through metamorphosis, you would expect it to become (a) an oyster. (b) a polychaete worm. (c) the species that secreted your shell. (d) Any of these taxa could develop from a trochophore. (e) None of these taxa would develop from your larva.

38. If you collected a trochophore larva and dissected it, you would expect to find (a) mesoderm. (b) an intestine. (c) bands of cilia. (d) All of these. (e) None of these structures would be in a trochophore.

39. If you collected an adult polychaete and dissected it, you would expect to find (a) generic characters. (b) phylum characters. (c) order characters. (d) class characters. (e) All of these.

40. If you collected a veliger and kept it alive through metamorphosis, you would expect to have a pet (a) member of Polychaeta. (b) seaweed. (c) mollusc. (d) _Paramecium_. (e) Any of these.

41. If you collected any larva out in the ocean, you would expect it to (a) be sexually immature. (b) have cilia or other structures to help it move. (c) a member of any of several phyla. (d) quite different structurally from the adult it would become. (e) All of these answers are correct.

42. If you tried to collect both an adult and a larva of some species, you would expect them to (a) be structurally similar. (b) live in different habitats or ecological conditions. (c) be undergoing metamorphosis. (d) both be moving long distances. (e) None of these answers are reasonable.

43. Which of the following would be considered a part of some species' ecological niche? (a) temperature (b) moisture (c) time of day (d) season (e) All of these.

44. If you were a biologist studying the life cycles of a monophyletic group, you would expect to find (a) different stages each occupying a different environment. (b) structural differences between corresponding stages of various species. (c) genetic differences between larvae. (d) All of these.

45. What would you expect to find if you dissected a beetle larva? (a) Apicomplexa (b) a veliger (c) a sporophyte (d) zoospores with two distinct kinds of flagella (e) None of these.

46. Where would you expect to find species of the genus _Laminaria_? (a) in Nebraska (b) along a rocky coastline (c) near some of the campus buildings (d) in the same ecological niche as _Paramecium_.

47. A person acquires Chagas' disease as a result of (a) eating _Laminaria_. (b) handling bacterial cultures. (c) getting bitten by certain kinds of insects. (d) handling animals such as sloths and armadillos. (e) You could acquire this disease by doing any of these activities.

48. If some organismic biologist asked you "What is the most diverse monophyletic eukaryotic taxon?" your answer would likely be (a) Protista. (b) foraminifera. (c) radiolarian (d) Apicomplexa. (e) Gram-negative Bacteria.

49. If you tried to describe radiolarians to a music major roommate, a good phrase to use might be:

(a) seaweeds along a rocky intertidal shore

(b) amebas that produce skeletons of almost unbelievable beauty and complexity

(c) flagellates that will infect your heart muscles and make you very ill

(d) parasites likely to infect you and your date on the way to some upscale social event

(e) segmented worms that develop from veliger larvae

50. If you tried to describe foraminiferans to a marketing major roommate, a good phrase to use might be:

(a) molluscs that develop from trochophore larvae and produce beautiful shells

(b) protistans that are transmitted by the bite of kissing bugs

(c) molluscs that develop from veliger larvae

(d) one-celled organisms that produce highly diverse shells with numerous chambers

(e) large one-celled organisms that live inside meal worms

**Second exam – spring, 2011:**

1. Seedless vascular plants are most likely to be members of (a) Coniferophyta. (b) Anthophyta. (c) Pterophyta. (d) Bryophyta. (e) All of these groups contain seedless vascular plants.

2. Seedless vascular plants most likely to be represented in reconstructions of Carboniferous forests are members of (a) Anthophyta. (b) Coniferophyta. (c) Bryophyta. (d) Pterophyta. (e) Any of these groups should be found in such a reconstruction.

3. What would you likely see in a cross section of a bryophyte stem that you would not see in a cross section of an eudicot stem? (a) aeroles (b) vascular bundles (c) septate hyphae (d) symbiotic algae (e) None of these answers are correct.

4. In a fern life cycle, you would expect meiosis to occur (a) during gamete formation in the gametophyte. (b) during spore formation in the sporophyte. (c) during spore formation in the gametophyte. (d) following spore formation in the sporophyte. (e) Meiosis does not occur in ferns.

5. In a fern life cycle, you would expect mitosis to occur (a) when a gametophyte produces gametes. (b) when a sporophyte produces spores. (c) during spore formation in the gametophyte. (d) when a sporophyte produces gametes. (e) Mitosis does not occur in ferns.

6. In mosses, (a) the sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte. (b) the gametophyte is dependent on the sporophyte. (c) the gametophyte is independent of the sporophyte. (d) the female gametophyte is enclosed within a megasporangium. (e) None of these statements apply to mosses.

7. Which of the following would you expect to be produced in a liverwort antheridium? (a) megaspores (b) gametophytes (c) sperm (d) ovules (e) aeroles.

8. Which of the following would you expect to be produced in a _Marchantia_ archegonium? (a) sperm (b) an egg (c) pollen (d) conidia (e) conidiophores.

9. Which of the following would likely develop from apical meristem? (a) ovules (b) carpals (c) roots and shoots (d) stamens (e) archegonia.

10. Plants represented by Rhynie chert fossils were generally (a) tall and arborescent. (b) dichotomously branched and only an inch or two high. (c) similar to present-day ferns. (d) similar to present-day ginkgos. (e) All of theses answers are correct.

11. Rhynie chert fossils reveal (a) associations between plants and fungi. (b) associations between plants and pollinating insects. (c) adaptations for seed dispersal. (d) leaf scars on stems. (e) All of these answers are correct.

12. Haploid stages of a moss life cycle include (a) spores. (b) antheridia. (c) archegonia. (d) All of these. (e) None of these stages are haploid.

13. Diploid stages of a moss life cycle include (a) antheridia. (b) sporophyte. (c) female gametophyte. (d) spores. (e) All of these.

14. Which of the following life cycle features are found in ferns but not in mosses? (a) large dependent gametophyte. (b) large independent sporophyte. (c) reduced gametophyte dependent on sporophyte. (d) reduced sporophyte dependent on gametophyte. (e) archegonia and antheridia.

15. Which of the following features would you expect to have been present in the life cycles of extinct Paleozoic _Calamites_? (a) large dependent gametophyte. (b) large independent sporophyte. (c) reduced gametophyte dependent on sporophyte. (d) reduced sporophyte dependent on gametophyte. (e) adaptation for wind dispersal of seeds.

16. Which of the following vascular plant phyla would you expect to be found in a reconstruction of Carboniferous or Permian forests? (a) Lycophyta (b) Coniferophyta (c) Bryophyta (d) Anthophyta (e) All of these vascular plant phyla would be present in a reconstruction of Carboniferous forest.

17. In extant conifers, microscopic male gametophytes should be found inside (a) an ovulate cone. (b) a pollen cone. (c) an archegonium. (d) an inferior ovary. (e) anthers of imperfect flowers.

18. In extant angiosperms, microscopic female gametophytes could be found inside (a) an ovulate cone. (b) a pollen cone. (c) an archegonium. (d) an inferior ovary. (e) anthers of imperfect flowers.

19. In extant conifers, the seed coat is derived from (a) the diploid surviving megaspore. (b) the haploid megasporangium. (c) the diploid ovulate cone integument. (d) the archegonium. (e) female gametophyte.

20. Wallace's Line separates (a) the Neotropical from the Nearctic realms. (b) the Ethiopian from the Palearctic realms. (c) the Palearctic from the Oriental realms. (d) the Oriental from the Australian realms. (e) the Australian from the Neotropical realms.

21. In which of the following biogeographic realms would you expect to find the highest diversity of Cactaceae? (a) Neotropical (b) Palearctic (c) Oriental (d) Australian (e) Ethiopian.

22. In which of the following biogeographic realms would you expect to find Euphorbiaceae that exhibit convergence with Cactaceae? (a) Neotropical (b) Palearctic (c) Oriental (d) Australian (e) Ethiopian.

23. Which of the following characters do Cactaceae share with convergent Euphorbiaceae? (a) aeroles (b) stem succulence (c) imperfect flowers (d) perfect flowers (e) All of these answers are correct.

24. You would expect members of the genus _Opuntia_ to differ in (a) growth habit. (b) structure of areoles. (c) size and shape of stem segments. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

25. If you visited all of the accessible Galapagos Islands, you would find (a) several varieties of a single _Opuntia_ species. (b) at least five different _Opuntia_ species. (c) some species restricted to certain islands. (d) some species' varieties restricted to certain regions of a particular island. (e) all of these.

26. You would expect the flowers of jumping cholla or cardon to (a) be imperfect. (b) have inferior ovaries. (c) to exhibit axial placentation. (d) have petals and sepals in multiples of three. (e) All of these answers are correct.

27. If you visited all the accessible Galapagos Islands to study species of _Opuntia_ , you would expect to find (a) many species with imperfect flowers. (b) several species with superior ovaries. (c) a variety of growth habits that depended on the presence or absence of tortoises. (d) a single species on all islands. (e) All of these answers are correct.

28. If you decided to become the world's expert on the taxonomy of extant Cactaceae, approximately how many species would you end up studying? (a) 100,000 or more (b) close to a million (c) fewer than 500 (d) about 2,000 (e) You can't estimate the number of species from a study of primary literature.

29. Many mangrove seeds exhibit vivipary, an interesting adaptation for dispersal in their aquatic environment which refers to (a) the ability to carry out photosynthesis under water. (b) the ability to cling to biotic vectors such as birds. (c) the ability to germinate while still attached to the parent plant. (d) the ability to prevent waterlogging by imbibition.

30. Which of the following would NOT constitute examples of biotic dispersal by plants? (a) _Impatiens_ seeds exploding from their seed capsules. (b) A _Persea_ fruit being consumed by a quetzal. (c) Cockleburs clinging to a dog's fur. (d) A fruit bat eating a wild tomato.

31. A major distinction between C4 and CAM metabolism in plants is that (a) C4 involves a temporal separation of carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle that converts CO2 to sugar. (b) C4 is favored in dry environments, whereas CAM is favored in wet environments. (c) C4 plants have specialized bundle sheath cells where the Calvin cycle occurs. (d) C4 plants have specialized stomata that close during the day.

32. Orchids achieve pollination by deception by (a) mimicking a food item. (b) providing pollen of a contrasting color. (c) producing an attractive perfume. (d) taking the form of a female insect.

33. Plants differ from animals because (a) animals have to defend themselves against predators but plants do not. (b) plants are confined to wherever seeds fall but animals can move to different environmental conditions. (c) plants can seek mates through carpal movements but animals are confined to a particular habitat. (d) plant seeds have limited movement but animals can move freely. (e) All of these answers are correct.

34. According to fossil evidence, arborescent club mosses and arborescent horsetails (a) achieved their greatest diversity in the Mesozoic Era. (b) became extinct as a result of competition with flowering plants. (c) achieved their greatest diversity after the Mesozoic Era. (d) disappeared from Earth by the end of the Paleozoic Era. (e) survive today in the Australian realm.

35. What happens during karyogamy in _Rhizopus_? (a) hyphae elongate (b) hyphae fuse (c) conidia are formed (d) nuclei fuse (e) a sporangiophore is formed.

36. What happens during plasmogamy in _Rhizopus_? (a) hyphae elongate (b) hyphae fuse (c) conidia are formed (d) nuclei fuse (e) a sporangiophore is formed.

37. What is the function of conidia in the life of _Rhizopus_? (a) sexual reproduction (b) distribution (c) distinguishing between mating types (d) ascus formation.

38. You would expect fungal species to differ in terms of (a) hyphae structure (b) conidia structure (c) life cycle events (d) shapes of fruiting bodies (e) all of these.

39. You would expect different species of _Aspergillus_ to exhibit different (a) colony phenotypes on agar (b) conidial structure (c) colors (d) sporangiophore structure (e) all of these.

40. Fungal hyphae may be (a) septate (b) multinucleate (c) branched (d) all of these (e) none of these.

41. Where does meiosis occur in the life cycle of a mushroom? (a) in the pileus (b) in the secondary hyphae (c) in the conidiophores (d) in the basidia (e) in all these places.

42. Which of the following stages or structures of a mushroom are dikaryotic? (a) basidiospore (b) gills (c) primary hyphae (d) all of these (e) none of these.

43. During the life cycle of an ascomycete, meiosis occurs (a) following karyogamy (b) following plasmogamy (c) during conidia formation (d) during spore germination.

44. For mycelia described as heterokaryons or as being dikaryotic, which life cycle process has already occurred and which process has not yet occurred? (a) germination; plasmogamy (b) plasmogamy; karyogamy (c) meiosis; mitosis (d) karyogamy; germination (e) germination; mitosis.

45. In the life cycle of _Rhizopus_ , haploid mycelia are most likely to be produced (a) as a result of plasmogamy. (b) as a result of karyogamy. (c) asexually from spores. (d) by germination of a zygosporangium. (e) from spores released by an ascocarp.

46. Colonies of different _Penicillium_ species should (a) exhibit similar structures and colors on different culture media. (b) look the same on malt extract agar as they do on Czapek's agar. (c) to be indistinguishable from one another when grown on Czapek's agar. (d) have unique forms and colors regardless of the culture medium.

47. When viewed with a scanning electron microscope, you would expect different _Aspergillus_ species to have (a) conidia of different shapes. (b) conidia that were indistinguishable from one another but conidiophores that could be distinguished based on structure. (c) conidiophores that were indistinguishable from one another but conidia that could be distinguished based on structure. (d) ascocarps that differed structurally but not enough to distinguish the species from one another.

48. In which of the following mushroom structures would you expect to find diploid nuclei? (a) ascus (b) ascocarp (c) basidiocarp (d) basidia (e) ascospores.

49. If you observed many species of lichens under a dissecting microscope, you would expect to see (a) leaf-like growth forms. (b) fungi that appeared like a crust on some substrate such as a rock. (c) highly branching, almost shrub-like, growth forms. (d) ascocarps. (e) All of these.

50. If you made a cross-section of a lichen and examined it under a compound microscope, you would expect to see (a) a layer of algae below the upper mycelium surface. (b) ascocarps or other fungal reproductive structures. (c) soredia. (d) All of these.

Third exam – spring, 2011:

1. Which of the following stages must _Obelia_ _geniculata_ pass through before becoming an adult? (a) pupa (b) planula (c) sporocyst (d) cercaria (e) both planula and sporocyst.

2. What life cycle function is performed by an _Obelia geniculata_ medusa that is not performed by a polyp? (a) feeding (b) sexual reproduction (c) asexual reproduction (d) encystment (e) All of these functions are performed by both polyp and medusa stages in _Obelia geniculata_.

3. Regardless of what they look like as adults, _Obelia geniculata_ and all the members of its phylum are considered to exhibit (a) primitive radial symmetry. (b) secondary radial symmetry. (c) mesoderm formation from archenteron pockets (d) asexual reproduction in the sporocyst stage. (e) None of these answers apply to _Obelia geniculata_ and its relatives.

4. Which of the following features of humans can also be found in sponges? (a) eucoelomate condition (b) radial cleavage (c) deuterostome development (d) cellular specialization (e) All of these.

5. If you decided to become an expert in sponge classification, which of the following would likely be your primary focus? (a) cercarial stages (b) spicules (c) reproductive polyps (d) gastrovascular cavity (e) All of these structures and stages would be important in sponge classification.

6. Choanocytes function primarily in (a) asexual reproduction. (b) sexual reproduction. (c) feeding. (d) geographic distribution. (e) building of the skeleton.

7. During protostome development (a) the blastopore becomes the anus. (b) the blastopore becomes the mouth. (c) the nervous system arises from the archenteron. (d) the archenteron gives rise to the circulatory system. (e) All of these events occur during embryological development in protostomes.

8. During deuterostome development (a) the blastopore becomes the anus. (b) the blastopore becomes the mouth. (c) the nervous system arises from the archenteron. (d) the archenteron gives rise to the circulatory system. (e) None of these events occur during embryological development in deuterostomes.

9. According to your text, in protostomes, mesoderm arises from (a) folding of the archenteron. (b) folds formed from ectoderm. (c) cell masses near the blastopore. (d) endoderm. (e) None of these answers are correct.

10. What would you expect to study if you did a doctoral dissertation on the arthropod parasites of _Peromyscus maniculatus_? (a) tapeworms and roundworms (b) members of several different phyla (c) ticks, fleas, and mites (d) sporocysts (e) All of these.

11. What would you expect to find if you did a detailed study of the parasitic organisms that live in and on _Lepomis macrochirus_? (a) members of several different phyla (b) several species of the same genus (c) some larval stages (d) some sexually mature individuals (e) All of these.

12. If you separated the blastomeres of an early marine mollusc embryo, you'd expect to end up with (a) genetically identical larvae. (b) genetically identical adults. (c) deuterostome larvae. (d) dead embryos. (e) diploblastic instead of triploblastic larvae.

13. If you separated the blastomeres of an early sea urchin or starfish embryo, you'd expect to end up with (a) genetically identical larvae. (b) genetically identical adults. (c) deuterostome larvae. (d) triploblastic larvae. (e) All of these.

14. During embryonic development of animals in which a gastrovascular cavity is a phylum character, you would expect (a) the blastopore to become the anus. (b) radial and determinate cleavage. (c) the eucoelom to develop from archenteron pockets. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

15. Which of the following structural features would you expect to find if you dissected a spider but not if you dissected a crayfish? (a) biramous appendages (b) book lungs (c) dorsal tubular nervous system (d) ventral metameric nervous system (e) All of these.

16. Which of the following structural features would you expect to find if you dissected a crayfish but not if you dissected a spider? (a) biramous appendages (b) book lungs (c) dorsal tubular nervous system (d) ventral metameric nervous system (e) None of these.

17. Which of the following structural features would you expect to find if you dissected a scorpion but not if you dissected a grasshopper or a lobster? (a) ventral metameric nervous system (b) biramous appendages (c) chelicerae (d) open dorsal circulatory system (e) All of these.

18. Approximately what fraction of the human population is estimated to be infected with at least one _Ascaris lumbricoides_? (a) one fourth (b) one half (c) almost 100% (d) There is no research that allows us to estimate the number of _A. lumbricoides_ infections in humans.

19. Some parasitic worms are called "geohelminths" because (a) their infective stages are transmitted by mosquitoes. (b) they tend to be acquired by contact with soil contaminated with feces. (c) they are transmitted through water. (d) they reproduce in the soil. (e) they are widely distributed geographically.

20. Tapeworms generally attach to the lining of a host's intestine by means of their (a) mouth. (b) gastrovascular cavity. (c) gravid segments. (d) scolex. (e) Tapeworms do not have any of these structures.

21. The neck region of a tapeworm functions to (a) attach to an intermediate host's intestine. (b) feed on host intestinal contents. (c) produce new segments. (d) reproduce sexually. (e) The neck region of a tapeworm has no known function.

22. What would you expect to find in a gravid tapeworm segment that you would not expect to find in a mature segment? (a) testes (b) ovaries (c) vitelline glands (d) eggs (e) hooks.

23. In a trematode life cycle, the miracidium should (a) infect a snail. (b) develop into a cercaria. (c) develop into an adult. (d) migrate through a definitive host's lungs. (e) develop a scolex.

24. In a trematode life cycle, a second intermediate host would probably get infected by (a) eating a miracidium. (b) eating a sporocyst. (c) being penetrated by a cercaria. (d) eating a trematode egg. (e) Second intermediate hosts could get infected in any of these ways.

25. In a trematode life cycle, a definitive host would probably get infected by (a) eating a miracidium. (b) eating a sporocyst. (c) eating a trematode egg. (d) eating a second intermediate host. (e) Definitive hosts could get infected in any of these ways.

26. In a trematode life cycle, a paratenic host would probably (a) function as a first intermediate host. (b) play an ecological role in transmission to a definitive host. (c) be required for sporocyst development. (d) be required for scolex development. (e) All of these answers could be correct.

27. Schistosome life cycles differ from those like the one on your syllabus cover because the schistosomes (a) have more than one second intermediate host. (b) require a snail as first intermediate host. (c) require a vertebrate as definitive host. (d) do not have a second intermediate host. (e) All of these answers are correct.

28. Hookworm life cycles differ from those of schistosomes because in hookworms (a) cercariae penetrate directly instead of using a second intermediate host. (b) juvenile worms must migrate through the lungs before ending up in the intestine. (c) the first intermediate hosts are crabs instead of snails. (d) definitive hosts get infected by eating parasite eggs. (e) None of these.

29. Evidence for evolutionary origin of crustacean mandibles is found mainly in (a) the fate of nauplius appendages. (b) comparison of crustacean and spider mandibles. (c) development of deuterostome embryos. (d) the nervous systems of related forms such as scorpions. (e) All of these.

30. A crayfish cephalothorax provides a good example of (a) metamerism. (b) tagmatism. (c) diversity in pedipalp structure. (d) diversity of pedipalp function. (e) diversity of both chelicerae and pedipalp function.

31. Where would you expect to find copepods, amphipods, and isopods? (a) On some beautiful Spring Break beach. (b) In a Nebraska pond or stream. (c) In the ocean off the rocky Oregon coast. (d) Any of these places.

32. Which of the following structural features would you expect to find if you dissected both a grasshopper and a crayfish? (a) tagmatism (b) chelicerae and pedipalps (c) two pairs of antennae (d) a cephalothorax. (e) all of these.

33. Which of the following taxa include common Nebraska animals? (a) Chilopoda (b) Decapoda (c) Cladocera (d) Amphipoda (e) All of these.

34. Which of the following life cycle stages would you expect to find if you reared a butterfly from an egg, but not if you reared a shrimp from an egg? (a) larva (b) nauplius (c) pupa (d) cercaria (e) sporocyst.

35. Which of the following structures would you expect to find if you dissected an adult grasshopper, an adult butterfly, and an adult beetle? (a) two pairs of antennae (b) chelicerae and pedipalps (c) sporocysts (d) Malpighian tubules (e) book lungs.

36. Which of the following features do you share with _Peromyscus maniculatus_ and _Acanthostega gunnari_? (a) ilium and ischium (b) Malpighian tubules (c) coxa (d) tergites (e) None of these.

37. Evidence from vertebrate comparative anatomy suggests (a) lungs were acquired by primitive fishes. (b) lungs evolved from swim bladders of early fishes. (c) lungs did not appear until true land eggs with embryonic membranes. (d) swim bladders are connected to the digestive system but lungs are not.

38. Phylogenetic hypotheses suggest that lungs are (a) shared derived characters for both bony fishes and land vertebrates. (b) a primitive character for all jawed vertebrates. (c) a shared derived character for land vertebrates but not for other jawed vertebrates. (d) a shared derived character for amniotes but not for other jawed vertebrates.

39. Phylogenetic hypotheses suggest that amniote eggs are (a) shared derived characters for both bony fishes and land vertebrates. (b) a primitive character for all jawed vertebrates. (c) a shared derived character for land vertebrates but not for other jawed vertebrates. (d) a shared derived character for all jawed vertebrates. (e) vertebrate phylogenies do not consider amniote eggs as a derived character.

40. Which of the following structural features suggest tunicate larvae as a candidate potential ancestor for chordates in general? (a) notochord in tail (b) pharyngeal openings (c) structure of the nervous system (d) deuterostome development (e) All of these.

41. Evidence from comparative anatomy and the fossil record suggest jaws originated from (a) bones of the skull. (b) bones that supported gills of early fishes. (c) the notochord extending into the head region. (d) the pectoral girdle. (e) pharyngeal pouches or clefts.

42. Characters most likely shared by _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ and a transitional land vertebrate such as _Ichthyostega stensioei_ include (a) amniote egg. (b) feathers. (c) pelvic girdle. (d) swim bladder.

43. If you dissected a fertile chicken's egg, you would encounter structures in which of the following orders: (a) shell, yolk, chorion, allantois (b) shell, amnion, chorion, yolk (c) shell, chorion, amnion, allantois (d) shell, chorion, yolk or allantois, amnion (e) shell, allantois, yolk, chorion.

44. _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ most likely shared which of the following characters with most modern birds: (a) teeth (b) several post-anal vertebrae (c) scapula, clavicle, and amniote eggs (d) claws on the wings (e) None of these answers are likely to be correct.

45. _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ most likely shared which of the following characters with members of Labyrinthodontia: (a) teeth (b) several post-anal vertebrae (c) scapula, clavicle, and femur (d) femur, tibia, and ulna (e) All of these answers are likely to be correct.

46. _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ most likely shared which of the following characters with the species _Seymouria baylorensis_ : (a) eggs with amnion and chorion (b) ilium, ischium, and pubis (c) feathers (d) incurrent siphon (e) None of these answers are likely to be correct.

47. Which of the following features were most likely shared by both _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ and Jurassic molluscs? (a) coelom (b) deuterostome development (c) eggs with indeterminate cleavage (d) eggs with an amnion. (e) It is not likely that _Archaeopteryx lithographica_ shared any of these features with an invertebrate.

48. George M. Sutton came to the University of Oklahoma to work because of (a) very high salary. (b) the ecological diversity and large number of nesting bird species. (c) he was able to take art classes from Louis Agassiz Fuertes. (d) the winning football team coached by Bud Wilkinson.

49. Roger Tory Peterson is best known for (a) painting backdrops for Morrill Hall dioramas. (b) copying Audubon's techniques of wiring his subjects in dramatic postures. (c) illustrating a best-selling book. (d) painting backdrops for dioramas in the American Museum of Natural History.

50. Museum research collections (a) provide tangible evidence for what the natural world is really like. (b) typically must be kept safe from destructive insects. (c) require constant maintenance and supervision by collection managers. (d) allow scientists to reconstruct the past, at least in part. (d) All of these.

Final exam – spring, 2011:

1. If you saw the following phrase— _Euphydryas perdiccas_ (Edwards, 1862)—in a paper from the 2011 primary literature, how would you interpret it? (a) Edwards put this species in another genus. (b) Edwards named this species _Euphydryas perdiccas._ (c) The name and date refer to a reference in the bibliography section of this paper. (d) Edwards put this species in _Euphydryas_ but gave it another specific epithet. (e) All of these answers are correct.

2. We used the genus _Pelecanus_ in lecture as an illustration of congeneric species. From this lesson, what should you know about congeners? (a) They are described by the same individual. (b) De-scriptions of congeners are published in the same year. (c) They could easily have different describers and come from different places. (d) Their specific epithets are the same.

3. Members of a paraphyletic group (a) do not share a most recent common ancestor. (b) probably posses both ancestral and derived characters. (c) do not share homologous structures. (d) share analogous structures but not homologous ones. (e) share homologous structures but not analogous ones.

4. Members of a monophyletic group (a) share a most recent common ancestor. (b) share derived characters. (c) share apomorphic characters. (d) probably have ancestral characters. (e) All of these answers are correct.

5. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a paraphyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) this paraphyletic group could be changed to a monophyletic group by removing one of the species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

6. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a monophyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) _Glossina morsitans_ would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) each of the genera listed contain only a single species. (e) None of these answers are correct.

7. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a polyphyletic group, then (a) they do not share an immediate common ancestor. (b) their common ancestor is a member of one of the genera listed. (c) any _Glossina_ species would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

8. Taxa whose relationships are shown as a polytomy (a) do not share a common ancestor. (b) share derived characters but not ancestral ones. (c) have evolutionary relationships that are not yet clear. (d) share ancestral characters but not derived ones. (e) hare analogous structures but not homologous ones.

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9. Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to (a) possession of shared ancestral characters. (b) homoplasies or convergent morphology. (c) mistakes by describers. (d) characters shared with an outgroup.

10. In spite of their similarities (a) Bacteria have histones associated with their DNA but Archaea do not. (b) Archaea have singular circular chromosomes but Bacteria do not. (c) Archaea have a nuclear envelope but Bacteria do not. (d) Bacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell walls but Archaea do not. (e) All of these answers are correct.

11. A phylogeny based on genes for rRNA shows (a) prokaryotes living in extreme environments are more closely related to one another than to Bacteria. (b) mitochondria of eukaryotic organisms are more closely related to Bacteria than to eukaryotes. (c) chloroplasts of plants and algae are more closely related to Bacteria than to either plants or algae. (d) All of these answers are correct.

12. When constructing phylogenies, outgroups usually are chosen (a) because they are part of a polytomy. (b) they provide evidence for ancestral conditions or characters. (c) they exhibit shared derived traits common to some members of the ingroup. (d) they exhibit convergences or homoplasies. (e) All of these reasons are valid ones for choosing an outgroup.

13. Homologous structures (a) are identical in function. (b) have the same evolutionary origin. (c) are usually if not always synapomorphic. (d) have different evolutionary origins but similar functions.

14. Analogous structures (a) have similar functions. (b) have the same evolutionary origin. (c) are usually if not always ancestral. (d) have the same evolutionary origins but different functions. (e) can be convergent (homoplasies) but cannot be homologous.

15. Five different bacterial species should exhibit (a) different growth characteristics, depending on the culture medium. (b) similar ability to grow on some culture media but not on others. (c) either similar or different effects on the culture medium being used to grow them. (d) either Gram positive or Gram negative staining, depending on the species. (e) All of these answers are correct.

16. Which of the following components of a bacterial cell wall is most likely to contribute to an infection or produce a pathological response from another organism? (a) ribosomes (b) nuclear envelope (c) thick outer peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall (d) a thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides.

17. Which of the following characters should a Gram positive bacterial species have that a Gram negative one does not? (a) ribosomes (b) nuclear envelope (c) thick outer peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall (d) a thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides.

18. In spite of their similarities, algae taxa are different in that (a) some have larval stages and others do not. (b) the shapes of their cells vary. (c) some go through a veliger stage but others pass through a trochophore. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

19. If you collected a trochophore larva and kept it alive through metamorphosis, you would expect it to become a (a) mollusc. (b) _Laminaria_ sporophyte. (c) lancelet. (d) member of Apicomplexa. (e) A trochophore could metamorphose into any of these organisms.

20. If you collected a trochophore lavae and kept it alive through metamorphosis, you would expect it to become (a) an oyster. (b) a polychaete worm. (c) the species that secreted your shell. (d) Any of these taxa could develop from a trochophore. (e) None of these taxa would develop from your larva.

21. If you collected a trochophore larva and dissected it, you would expect to find (a) mesoderm. (b) an intestine. (c) bands of cilia. (d) All of these. (e) None of these structures would be in a trochophore.

22. If you were a biologist studying the life cycles of a monophyletic group, you would expect to find (a) different stages each occupying a different environment. (b) structural differences between corresponding stages of various species. (c) genetic differences between larvae. (d) All of these.

23. What would you likely see in a cross section of a bryophyte stem that you would not see in a cross section of an eudicot stem? (a) aeroles (b) vascular bundles (c) septate hyphae (d) symbiotic algae (e) None of these answers are correct.

24. In a fern life cycle, you would expect meiosis to occur (a) during gamete formation in the gametophyte. (b) during spore formation in the sporophyte. (c) during spore formation in the gametophyte. (d) following spore formation in the sporophyte. (e) Meiosis does not occur in ferns.

25. In a fern life cycle, you would expect mitosis to occur (a) when a gametophyte produces gametes. (b) when a sporophyte produces spores. (c) during spore formation in the gametophyte. (d) when a sporophyte produces gametes. (e) Mitosis does not occur in ferns.

26. In mosses, (a) the sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte. (b) the gametophyte is dependent on the sporophyte. (c) the gametophyte is independent of the sporophyte. (d) the female gametophyte is enclosed within a megasporangium. (e) None of these statements apply to mosses.

27. Which of the following would you expect to be produced in a liverwort antheridium? (a) megaspores (b) gametophytes (c) sperm (d) ovules (e) aeroles.

28. Plants represented by Rhynie chert fossils were generally (a) tall and arborescent. (b) dichotomously branched and only an inch or two high. (c) similar to present-day ferns. (d) similar to present-day ginkgos. (e) All of theses answers are correct.

29. Which of the following life cycle features are found in ferns but not in mosses? (a) large dependent gametophyte. (b) large independent sporophyte. (c) reduced gametophyte dependent on sporophyte. (d) reduced sporophyte dependent on gametophyte. (e) archegonia and antheridia.

30. Which of the following features would you expect to have been present in the life cycles of extinct Paleozoic _Calamites_? (a) large dependent gametophyte. (b) large independent sporophyte. (c) reduced gametophyte dependent on sporophyte. (d) reduced sporophyte dependent on gametophyte. (e) adaptation for wind dispersal of seeds.

31. In extant conifers, the seed coat is derived from (a) the diploid surviving megaspore. (b) the haploid megasporangium. (c) the diploid ovulate cone integument. (d) the archegonium. (e) female gametophyte.

32. In extant conifers, microscopic male gametophytes should be found inside (a) an ovulate cone. (b) a pollen cone. (c) an archegonium. (d) an inferior ovary. (e) anthers of imperfect flowers.

33. If you visited all the accessible Galapagos Islands to study species of _Opuntia_ , you would expect to find (a) many species with imperfect flowers. (b) several species with superior ovaries. (c) a variety of growth habits that depended on the presence or absence of tortoises. (d) a single species on all islands. (e) All of these answers are correct.

34. Many mangrove seeds exhibit vivipary, an interesting adaptation for dispersal in their aquatic environment which refers to (a) the ability to carry out photosynthesis under water. (b) the ability to cling to biotic vectors such as birds. (c) the ability to germinate while still attached to the parent plant. (d) the ability to prevent waterlogging by imbibition.

35. A major distinction between C4 and CAM metabolism in plants is that (a) C4 involves a temporal separation of carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle that converts CO2 to sugar. (b) C4 is favored in dry environments, whereas CAM is favored in wet environments. (c) C4 plants have specialized bundle sheath cells where the Calvin cycle occurs. (d) C4 plants have specialized stomata that close during the day.

36. According to fossil evidence, arborescent club mosses and arborescent horsetails (a) achieved their greatest diversity in the Mesozoic Era. (b) became extinct as a result of competition with flowering plants. (c) achieved their greatest diversity after the Mesozoic Era. (d) disappeared from Earth by the end of the Paleozoic Era. (e) survive today in the Australian realm.

37. During the life cycle of an ascomycete, meiosis occurs (a) following karyogamy (b) following plasmogamy (c) during conidia formation (d) during spore germination.

38. For mycelia described as heterokaryons or as being dikaryotic, which life cycle process has already occurred and which process has not yet occurred? (a) germination; plasmogamy (b) plasmogamy; karyogamy (c) meiosis; mitosis (d) karyogamy; germination (e) germination; mitosis.

39. In the life cycle of _Rhizopus_ , haploid mycelia are most likely to be produced (a) as a result of plasmogamy. (b) as a result of karyogamy. (c) asexually from spores. (d) by germination of a zygosporangium. (e) from spores released by an ascocarp.

40. Colonies of different _Penicillium_ species should (a) exhibit similar structures and colors on different culture media. (b) look the same on malt extract agar as they do on Czapek's agar. (c) to be indistinguishable from one another when grown on Czapek's agar. (d) have unique forms and colors regardless of the culture medium.

41. When viewed with a scanning electron microscope, you would expect different _Aspergillus_ species to have (a) conidia of different shapes. (b) conidia that were indistinguishable from one another but conidiophores that could be distinguished based on structure. (c) conidiophores that were indistinguishable from one another but conidia that could be distinguished based on structure. (d) ascocarps that differed structurally but not enough to distinguish the species from one another.

42. If you made a cross-section of a lichen and examined it under a compound microscope, you would expect to see (a) a layer of algae below the upper mycelium surface. (b) ascocarps or other fungal reproductive structures. (c) soredia. (d) All of these.

43. What life cycle function is performed by an _Obelia geniculata_ medusa that is not performed by a polyp? (a) feeding (b) sexual reproduction (c) asexual reproduction (d) encystment (e) All of these functions are performed by both polyp and medusa stages in _Obelia geniculata_.

44. Regardless of what they look like as adults, _Obelia geniculata_ and all the members of its phylum are considered to exhibit (a) primitive radial symmetry. (b) secondary radial symmetry. (c) mesoderm formation from archenteron pockets (d) asexual reproduction in the sporocyst stage. (e) None of these answers apply to _Obelia geniculata_ and its relatives.

45. What would you expect to find if you did a detailed study of the parasitic organisms that live in and on _Lepomis macrochirus_? (a) members of several different phyla (b) several species of the same genus (c) some larval stages (d) some sexually mature individuals (e) All of these.

46. If you separated the blastomeres of an early marine mollusc embryo, you'd expect to end up with (a) genetically identical larvae. (b) genetically identical adults. (c) deuterostome larvae. (d) dead embryos. (e) diploblastic instead of triploblastic larvae.

47. If you separated the blastomeres of an early sea urchin or starfish embryo, you'd expect to end up with (a) genetically identical larvae. (b) genetically identical adults. (c) deuterostome larvae. (d) triploblastic larvae. (e) All of these.

48. During embryonic development of animals in which a gastrovascular cavity is a phylum character, you would expect (a) the blastopore to become the anus. (b) radial and determinate cleavage. (c) the eucoelom to develop from archenteron pockets. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

49. Which of the following structural features would you expect to find if you dissected a scorpion but not if you dissected a grasshopper or a lobster? (a) ventral metameric nervous system (b) biramous appendages (c) chelicerae (d) open dorsal circulatory system (e) All of these.

50. In a trematode life cycle, a second intermediate host would probably get infected by (a) eating a miracidium. (b) eating a sporocyst. (c) being penetrated by a cercaria. (d) eating a trematode egg. (e) Second intermediate hosts could get infected in any of these ways.

51. In a trematode life cycle, a paratenic host would probably (a) function as a first intermediate host. (b) play an ecological role in transmission to a definitive host. (c) be required for sporocyst development. (d) be required for scolex development. (e) All of these answers could be correct.

52. Hookworm life cycles differ from those of schistosomes because in hookworms (a) cercariae penetrate directly instead of using a second intermediate host. (b) juvenile worms must migrate through the lungs before ending up in the intestine. (c) the first intermediate hosts are crabs instead of snails. (d) definitive hosts get infected by eating parasite eggs. (e) None of these.

53. Evidence for evolutionary origin of crustacean mandibles is found mainly in (a) the fate of nauplius appendages. (b) comparison of crustacean and spider mandibles. (c) development of deuterostome embryos. (d) the nervous systems of related forms such as scorpions. (e) All of these.

54. Phylogenetic hypotheses suggest that lungs are (a) shared derived characters for both bony fishes and land vertebrates. (b) a primitive character for all jawed vertebrates. (c) a shared derived character for land vertebrates but not for other jawed vertebrates. (d) a shared derived character for amniotes but not for other jawed vertebrates.

55. Phylogenetic hypotheses suggest that amniote eggs are (a) shared derived characters for both bony fishes and land vertebrates. (b) a primitive character for all jawed vertebrates. (c) a shared derived character for land vertebrates but not for other jawed vertebrates. (d) a shared derived character for all jawed vertebrates. (e) vertebrate phylogenies do not consider amniote eggs as a derived character.

56. If you dissected a fertile chicken's egg, you would encounter structures in which of the following orders: (a) shell, yolk, chorion, allantois (b) shell, amnion, chorion, yolk (c) shell, chorion, amnion, allantois (d) shell, chorion, yolk or allantois, amnion (e) shell, allantois, yolk, chorion.

57. The major factor responsible for seasons on Earth is (a) global wind patterns. (b) changes in the distance from Earth to sun during the year. (c) Earth's tilt on its axis. (d) vertical air circulation over the oceans. (e) ocean currents.

58. Which of the following investigations is an example of the study of an abiotic factor? (a) Identifying food sources for a bird species. (b) A research project on competition between species. (c) Research on the interaction between two barnacle species on intertidal rocks. (d) A thesis about the relationship between annual precipitation and distribution of a plant species. (e) All of these.

59. Trees most likely to avoid extinction during periods of extensive climate change are those whose seeds (a) have thin seed coats. (b) are easily dispersed by wind or animals. (c) fall close to the parent tree. (d) must be exposed to fire before they will germinate. (e) have a large amount of stored carbohydrate.

60. What are the major factors that determine the climax vegetation in a biome? (a) distance from the equator (b) animal communities the feed on plants (c) temperature and available moisture (d) extent to which the landscape is divided into islands (e) presence of nearby islands.

61. If a certain pine species survives only in scattered areas at elevations above 2,800 m, ecologists seeking an explanation for this distribution should (a) analyze soils looking for unique chemicals. (b) focus on both biotic and abiotic factors unique to high altitudes. (c) study the pine species' anatomy. (d) try transplanting the species seeds' to lower elevations.

62. Which of the following biomes are at least partly dependent on periodic burning? (a) grassland and tundra (b) chaparral and savanna (c) desert and savanna (d) tropical forest and coniferous forest (e) temperate broadleaf forest and tropical forest.

63. When humans suppress fire in a biome, (a) forest communities remain in healthy condition. (b) species diversity generally increases. (c) threatened and endangered species are protected. (d) species composition within biological communities can change. (e) None of these events occur when fire is suppressed.

64. You would expect two similar plant species that live on different continents and are in different families, but occupy the same biome, to (a) interbreed. (b) also have different temperature and moisture requirements. (c) occupy the same ecological niche. (d) have similar temperature but quite different moisture requirements. (e) exhibit convergent evolution.

65. The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? (a) temperate grasslands (b) coniferous forest (c) temperate broadleaf forest (d) tropical rain forest (e) savanna.

66. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate? (a) tundra-long summers, mild winters (b) temperate broadleaf forest-short growing season, mild winters (c) tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature (d) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer (e) savanna-low temperature, uniform precipitation.

67. African cattle egrets, _Bubulcus ibis_ , easily spread through parts of the New World, most likely because (a) there were no New World egret species in its ecological nice. (b) no New World parasites could infect _B. ibis_. (c) temperature and moisture were similar to parts of Africa. (d) _B. ibis_ evolved to compete with local egrets. (e) there were no egret predators in the New World.

68. Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? (a) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes (b) a distribution predicted mainly by rock and soil patterns (c) average annual rainfall in excess of 250 cm (d) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering (e) cold winter months.

69. When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to changes (a) in biomes at different latitudes. (b) in an ecosystem as it changes over time. (c) in a community through different seasons. (d) at different depths in the ocean. (e) across the United States from east to west.

70. According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same (a) biome. (b) territory. (c) habitat. (d) ecological niche. (e) range.

71. The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called (a) biotic potential. (b) logistic population growth. (c) an ecological niche. (d) its habitat. (e) its carrying capacity.

72. In Connell's study of barnacles, which of the following best explains the vertical distribution of the different genera? (a) cooperative displacement (b) primary succession (c) predation of one genus by the other genus (d) mutualism (e) competitive exclusion.

73. Which of the following best describes resource partitioning? (a) competitive exclusion and success of a superior species (b) slight variations in niches that allow similar species to co-exist (c) a climax community with no new niches available (d) decrease in species diversity due to different resource utilization (e) two species co-evolving to share the same ecological niche.

74. Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction? (a) commensalism (b) predation (c) mutualism (d) parasitism (e) competition.

75. Which of the following would an ecologist consider most important in understanding the structure of a natural community? (a) which species are present (b) species richness (c) relative abundance of species (d) interactions that occur among the various species (e) All of these.

76. Species richness of a community refers to the (a) complexity of the food web. (b) number of species present. (c) relative number of individuals of each species. (d) total number of all organisms.

77. Which of the following members of a marine food chain occupies a similar trophic level to a grasshopper in a terrestrial food chain? (a) lobster (b) shark (c) sea lion (d) phytoplankton (e) zooplankton.

78. Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported by a field plot containing 2,000 kg of plant material? (a) 20,000 (b) 2,000 (c) 200 (d) 20 (e) 2.

79. In a tide pool, fifteen species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species removed. The species removed was most likely a (a) mutualistic organism. (b) keystone species. (c) herbivore. (d) resource partitioner. (e) community facilitator.

80. You are most likely to observe primary succession in a terrestrial community when you visit (a) an abandoned field. (b) a recently plowed field. (c) a recently created volcanic island. (d) a tropical rain forest. (e) a recently burned forest.

81. You are most likely to observe secondary succession in a terrestrial community when you visit (a) an abandoned field. (b) a recently plowed field. (c) a recently created volcanic island. (d) a tropical rain forest. (e) a recently burned forest.

82. In terrestrial communities, species richness of most taxa tends to increase as you (a) travel north from the south pole. (b) climb a mountain near the equator. (c) visit islands of increasing distance from the mainland. (d) visit the same biomes on larger continents. (e) travel north from the tropics.

83. Among islands formed about the same time and at similar distances from a mainland, you would expect the highest species diversity to be on (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

84. Among those same islands (question #77) which one would have the most impoverished species diversity? (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

85. Among those same islands (question #77), which one would have the lowest extinction rate? (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

86. Among those same islands (question #77), which one would have the highest extinction rate? (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

87. Among those same islands (question #77), which one would have the highest immigration rate? (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

88. Among those same islands (question #77), which one would have the lowest immigration rate? (a) the smallest island. (b) the island formed first. (c) the island formed last. (d) the largest island. (e) You cannot predict species diversity in this case.

89. Feeding relationships among species on the largest island determine the island community's (a) species richness. (b) species-area curve. (c) secondary succession. (d) trophic structure. (e) immigration rate.

90. The principle of competitive exclusion states that (a) two closely related species cannot coexist on the same island. (b) two species cannot coexist in exactly the same ecological niche. (c) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat. (d) two species cannot exist in the same habitat. (e) competition promotes survival of the best adapted species.

91. In a community, keystone predators can maintain diversity if they (a) allow immigration of other predator species. (b) competitively exclude other predator species. (c) prey on the community's dominant species. (d) prey mainly on the least abundant species in a community. (e) reduce disruption in a community.

92. In a community, food chains are sometimes short because (a) only one herbivore species feeds on each plant species. (b) most energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next highest level. (c) most producers are inedible. (d) predator species are less diverse and less abundant than prey species. (e) local extinction of a species causes extinction of other species in a food chain.

93. Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's diversity is (a) increased when humans intervene to stop disturbance. (b) increased by extensive human-caused disturbance. (c) increased by moderate levels of disturbance. (d) increased by stable conditions with no disturbance. (e) increased by frequent massive disturbance.

94. According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is (a) environmentally homogeneous. (b) small and close to a mainland. (c) large and remote. (d) small and remote. (e) large and close to a mainland.

95. The best explanation of why species richness is highest in the tropics is that (a) tropical communities are younger than temperate ones. (b) biodiversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases. (c) tropical regions have high immigration rates and low extinction rates. (d) water availability and solar radiation levels are highest in the tropics. (e) high temperature causes rapid speciation.

96. A population is considered to (a) inhabit the same area and belong to the same species. (b) inhabit the same area and have a uniform density. (c) belong to the same species and have a uniform density. (d) belong to the same species and have uniform dispersion. (e) inhabit the same area and have uniform density and dispersion.

97. Which of the following processes or properties is considered by ecologists to be a measure of a community's ability to either resist change or recover from disturbance? (a) productivity (b) stability (c) resource partitioning (d) succession (e) competitive exclusion.

98. The most common kind of spatial distribution of a species' population in nature is (a) uniform. (b) clumped. (c) dispersive. (d) random.

99. Relatively uniform spacing patterns of certain plants are most often associated with (a) patterns of high humidity. (b) concentration of nutrients within the population's range. (c) competitive interactions among individuals in the population. (d) pure chance. (e) random distribution of seeds.

100. Most ecologists believe that the global carrying capacity for the human population is (a) 6 to 8 billion. (b) 10 to 15 billion. (c) 15 to 20 billion. (d) 20 to 25 billion. (e) limitless, provided agricultural technology advances at a certain rate.

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38. In biology, organisms are sometimes considered uncooperative if (a) they evolve. (b) they cannot be easily cultured in large numbers. (c) they quickly multiply if provided with minimal food and water. (d) they exhibit genetic variations. (e) they exhibit superfecundity.

40. What do the professional athletic team names—Bears, Eagles, Falcons, Diamondbacks, Cardinals—have in common? (a) They all represent species of organisms. (b) The organisms they refer to have evolutionary histories. (c) The species they refer to all have a unique set of ecological conditions under which they reproduce. (d) You could find the scientific names for these organisms of you looked for them. (e) All of these.

25. What do you know about members of the animal family Sciuridae? (a) They are all in the same genus. (b) They are all in different genera. (c) They are all in the same order. (d) They are all in different orders. (e) Some, but not all, are in the same order.

26. Two species in the same order (a) must also be in the same family. (b) can be in the same genus. (c) can be in different classes. (d) must also have the same genus name. (e) none of these.

27. Which of the following pairs of species do you know are in the same family and the same order? (a) _Poa alpina_ and _Tenebrio molitor_ (b) _Agropyron desertorum_ and _Agropyron yukonense_ (c) _Mimus polyglottis_ and _Corvus brachyrhynchos_ (d) _Asio otis_ and _Otis asio_ (e) none of these.

28. If you used the terms _Hymenolepis nana_ and _Hymenolepis dimnuta_ , you would be communicating information about (a) a presumed relationship. (b) synapomorphic character states. (c) a presumed monophyletic group. (d) the literary history of names. (e) All of these.

29. Two species that are in the same subphylum must also be (a) in the same domain. (b) in the same class. (c) in the same order. (d) in different phyla. (e) all of these.

30. Two species that are in different orders can also be (a) in the same domain. (b) in different families. (c) in different subphyla. (d) in the same subphylum. (e) all of these.

31. Which of the following structures would you expect to find inside a prokaryote but not inside a member of the domain Eukarya? (a) ribosomes (b) DNA (c) mitochondria (d) all of these (e) none of these.

32. According to scientists' best estimates, approximately how old is the Earth? (a) 6000 years (b) 250 billion years (c) 4-5 billion years (d) 500 million years (e) 20 million years.

34. According to scientists' best estimates, approximately when did the dinosaurs become extinct? (a) 250 million years ago (b) 65 million years ago (c) 4.6 billion years ago (d) 250 billion years ago (e) within the last 10,000 years.

35. If scientists are correct in their interpretation of the evidence regarding Earth's history, what event of major evolutionary significance happened during the Mesozoic? (a) the breakup of Pangaea (b) the Permian extinction (c) the origin of land plants (d) extinction of wooly mammoths (e) all of these.

36. Which of the following would scientists consider the results of macroevolution? (a) new types of garden vegetables (b) different orders of mammals (c) shifts in gene frequencies due to genetic drift (d) phenotype frequencies not predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (e) all of these.

37. Which of the following would scientists consider the results of microevolution? (a) new types of garden vegetables (b) drug resistant bacteria (c) insecticide resistant mosquitoes (d) phenotype frequencies not predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (e) all of these.

38. How could you test a phylogenetic hypothesis regarding members of a plant family? (a) Use their DNA to construct a cladogram. (b) Use some homologous protein to construct a phylogenetic hypothesis. (c) Dissect all the species and discover some more structural characters used in a new cladogram. (d) Find some new species of the family to include in the analysis. (e) all of these.

39. If _Salsuginus yutanensis_ is a described species, then (a) you should be able to find its type locality in the literature. (b) you should be able to find a specimen in some museum designated a type specimen. (c) you should be able to determine why it was given its specific epithet. (d) you should be able to find the published original description. (e) all of these.

40. If you were a scientist studying the evolution of Archaea, which of the following would you expect to observe in your research? (a) ribosomal nucleotide sequences (b) radius and ulna (c) cell walls with peptidoglycan (d) sensitivity to antibiotics (e) all of these.

50. The biological species concept states that members of a single species (a) can successfully interbreed (b) are reproductively isolated from other species (c) are structurally similar (d) all of these.

40. If you used the terms _Hymenolepis nana_ and _Hymenolepis dimnuta_ , you would be communicating information about (a) a presumed relationship. (b) synapomorphic character states. (c) a presumed monophyletic group. (d) the literary history of names. (e) All of these.

41. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a paraphyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) this paraphyletic group could be changed to a monophyletic group by removing one of the species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

42. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a monophyletic group, then (a) they do not share a common ancestor. (b) they share a common ancestor with some species other than themselves [the four listed]. (c) _Glossina morsitans_ would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) each of the genera listed contain only a single species. (e) None of these answers are correct.

43. If _Glossina morsitans, Hippolates bishoppi, Stomoxys calcitrans,_ and _Hypoderma lineatum_ form a polyphyletic group, then (a) they do not share a immediate common ancestor. (b) their common ancestor is a member of one of the genera listed. (c) any _Glossina_ species would be a good outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of the four species. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers are correct.

45. What can you conclude, from their names, about _Papilio bairdi, Philotes spaldingi, Callophrys johnsoni,_ and _Callophrys hesseli_? (a) They share phylum characters. (b) They were all probably named after people. (c) Their descriptions were written in German. (d) You can't conclude anything from the names as given.

46. You would expect the members of _Apodemia walkeri_ to (a) share synapomorphies. (b) freely interbreed if given the opportunity. (c) be structurally very similar. (d) All of these.

47. You would expect the members of _Apodemia walkeri_ and _Apodemia smithi_ to (a) share synapomorphies. (b) freely interbreed if given the opportunity. (c) be structurally very similar. (d) All of these. (e) None of these.

48. You would expect the members of _Apodemia walkeri_ to (a) belong to the same genetic lineage. (b) have genes that may be evolving independently of _A. walkeri_. (c) serve as an OTU in some phylogeny. (d) to share plesiomorphic character states with confamilials. (e) All of these.

49. If you were the describer of _Apodemia walkeri_ , and you used structural characters to describe the species, you would be assuming that (a) the characters were controlled by genes. (b) the characters were stable over long periods of time. (c) _Apodemia walkeri_ does not interbreed with _Apodemia smithi._ (d) All of these assumptions are ones you would make implicitly or explicitly.

9. In general, what does a "Tree of Life" based on molecular data suggest? (a) Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary relationships can be developed and tested using appropriate technology. (b) There are two major groups of organisms we call "bacteria." (c) Among what we call "bacteria" there are organisms no more closely related to one another than to humans. (d) Dogs, mushrooms, and campus plants are more closely related to one another than any of them is to bacteria. (e) all of these.

50. An example of a temporal pre-zygotic isolating mechanism would be (a) rise of a mountain range. (b) flowering at different seasons. (c) barriers preventing sperm from penetrating an egg membrane. (d) infertile hybrids. (e) any of these.

52. Examples of protistan genera that are of major economic importance include (a) _Paramecium_ (b) heliozoans (c) _Rickettsia_ (d) _Plasmodium_ (e) all of these.

54. Heterotrophic protistans should (a) carry out photosynthesis (b) be transmitted to humans by lice (c) require their energy in the form of complex molecules (d) contain chloroplasts (e) all of these.

55. Diatoms are (a) photosynthetic protists (b) members of Archaea (c) transmitted to humans by lice (d) transmitted to humans by mosquitoes (e) members of Eubacteria.

64. Which of the following structures would you expect to find inside both a member of the genus _Rickettsia_ and a member of the subphylum Vertebrata? (a) ribosomes (b) DNA (c) mitochondria (d) all of these (e) none of these.

65. What do you know about methanogens and thermophiles? (a) They are members of Eukarya. (b) They occur in most processed foods. (c) They cause plague. (d) They are heterotrophic. (e) None of these answers is correct.

66. Which of the following would you expect to find in gram-negative bacteria but not in gram-positive bacteria? (a) a thick layer of lipopolysaccharide (b) a flagellum (c) a thick layer of peptidoglycan (d) a single circular loop of DNA (e) all of these.

67. What do you know about spirochaetes? (a) They have a flagellum. (b) Some of them cause diseases in humans. (c) They are rod-shaped and occur in chains. (d) They tend to live in extreme environments. (e) all of these.

68. What do you know about rickettsias? (a) They have a flagellum. (b) Some of them cause diseases in humans. (c) They are rod-shaped and occur in chains. (d) They tend to live in extreme environments. (e) all of these.

87. Which of the following organisms undergo zygotic meiosis? (a) flowering plants (b) humans (c) malarial parasites (d) _Yersinia pestis_ (e) all of these.

88. Which of the following disease-causing organisms are transmitted by insects? (a) _Helicobacter pylori_ (b) _Plasmodium_ species (c) _Bacillus anthracis_ (d) _Vibrio cholerae_ (e) all of these.

89. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo syngamy? (a) sporozoites (b) merozoites (c) spores (d) zygotes (e) gametes.

90. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo asexual reproduction? (a) merozoites (b) gametocytes (c) sporozoites (d) zygotes (e) none of these.

91. During the life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages are haploid? (a) sporo- zoites (b) merozoites (c) gametocytes (d) all of these (e) none of these.

92. Where would you expect to find foraminiferans? (a) in any local lake or pond (b) inside a mosquito (c) in fossil deposits of marine origin (d) inside a louse (e) in any of these places.

93. During an algal life cycle, which of the following stages would be a product of syngamy? (a) gametes (b) zygospores (c) merozoites (d) gametocytes (e) gametophytes.

94. During the life cycle of a flowering plant, which of the following stages would be haploid? (a) sporophyte (b) merozoite (c) zygotes (d) gametophytes (e) none of these.

95. The endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin proposes that (a) mitochondria are derived from bacteria (b) chloroplasts are derived from foraminiferans (c) nuclear envelopes are constructed according to the fluid mosaic model (d) Golgi bodies are derived from chloroplasts (e) all of these events are possible.

96. Evidence to support the endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin comes mainly from the (a) structure of diatoms. (b) biochemistry of chloroplasts. (c) function of plasma membrane. (d) life cycle of malarial parasites. (e) structure of mitochondria.

Answer the following questions with one or two complete sentences in the space provided:

81. What kinds of evidence support scientists' assertions about the origin of eukaryotic cells?

82. What is _Mixotricha paradoxa_ and why has it played an important role in development of ideas about the origin of eukaryotic cells?

83. What role do scientists believe secondary symbiosis played in the diversification of protists?

84. Distinguish between Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukaryota.

85. What is a choanoflagellate?

86. Give at least three reasons why choanoflagellates are considered to be of evolutionary importance.

87. Distinguish between a monophyletic group and a polyphyletic group.

88. Describe sponge larvae.

89. Why has sponge embryology been considered of evolutionary importance over the past century?

90. Describe a food web.

91. In what fundamental way does the nitrogen cycle differ from the carbon cycle?

92. In an ecosystem, what are producers and what do they produce?

93. In an ecosystem, what are tertiary consumers and what do they consume?

94. What are the main factors that influence the number of human beings that can be supported at various levels on the food pyramid of an agricultural system?

95. What is the main reason why the amount of potential chemical energy differs between levels of a food pyramid?

96. What is the main reason why symbiosis (including parasitism) is considered the most common way of life on Earth?

97. Give some examples of some infectious agents that are vertically transmitted and some that are horizontally transmitted.

98. Why can life be considered an emergent property?

99. Describe the distribution of bacteria and fungi on the human body.

100. What do we know about the cost of disease in a developed nation such as the United States?

18. What do you know about _Pelecanus occidentalis_? (a) It contains DNA. (b) It has relatives in the same genus. (c) Its relatives live in many places throughout the world. (d) Its relatives were discovered and described by various people from different nations. (e) All of these answers are correct.

19. Based on your knowledge of Darwinian principles, what can you conclude about the current populations of _Pelecanus occidentalis_? (a) They have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More brown pelicans are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which pelican genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) Biologists would probably conclude that all the members of genus _Pelecanus_ evolved from a common ancestor. (e) All of these answers are correct.

20. If you put your own species, the one whose scientific name you are writing about this semester, into your textbook's Figure 1.1, what could you conclude about it? (a) It has one or more cells. (b) It contains DNA. (c) There are probably several populations of it. (d) It probably interacts with other species. (e) All of these answers are correct.

21. If you went looking on campus for a member of Domain Eukarya, where would be a good place to find one? (a) In the Union drinking coffee. (b) Digging around in the trash bins. (c) Growing in the Cather Garden surrounding that big red steel sculpture west of the library. (d) In a local grocery store. (e) Members of Eukarya commonly occur in all these places.

22. What kinds of organisms are you likely to find in some of Earth's most extreme environments but not find in any of the places listed in question #21? (a) Eubacteria (b) Members of Kingdom Protista (c) Archaea (d) sloths (e) Slime molds, fungi, and plants.

23. In which of the following groups would you expect to find a variety of carbon skeletons? (a) Protista (b) Eukarya (c) Eubacteria (d) Your chosen species and all its closest relatives. (e) All of these answers are correct.

24. In which of the following groups would you expect to find long polymers made out of nucleotides? (a) Protista (b) Eukarya (c) Eubacteria (d) Your chosen species and all its closest relatives. (e) All of these answers are correct.

25. In which of the following groups would you expect to find long polymers made out of amino acids? (a) Protista (b) Eukarya (c) Eubacteria (d) Your chosen species and all its closest relatives. (e) All of these answers are correct.

42. Where would you expect to discover a species of genus _Paramecium_? (a) Nebraska (b) South Korea (c) Brazil and Peru (d) Zimbabwe (e) Any of these places.

43. On a trip to some zoo with a large aquarium, you would expect to see (a) sharks and rays. (b) organisms living in mutualistic relationships. (c) hosts for tapeworms. (d) molluscs and cnidarians. (e) All of these.

44. What should you remember about the symbiotic relationship between anemones and clownfish? (a) All the fish in one anemone are descended from a single parent female. (b) The largest fish in an anemone is a breeding male. (c) Up to six clownfish spend their entire adult lives in the anemone's tentacles. (d) The anemones are parasites of the fish. (e) All of these.

45. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, what do you know about both sharks and their tapeworms? (a) They are carrying out cellular respiration. (b) Neither host nor parasite produce ATP. (c) Both are storing immediately usable energy by converting ATP to ADP. (d) Neither species is producing ATP through catabolic reactions. (e) All of these answers are correct.

46. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, what do you know about the campus squirrels? (a) Their enzymes' active site structures are determined by the substrates eaten by the squirrels. (b) The primary structures of their plasma membrane proteins are determined by nucleotide sequences. (c) They oxidize NAD+ by adding hydrogen atoms to it to produce NADH. (d) They link nucleotides together to form enzymes. (e) All of these answers are correct.

47. Where would you expect to find pyruvate produced from glucose by means of glycolysis? (a) inside _Paramecium_ species. (b) inside campus squirrels. (c) inside the person sitting next to you. (d) inside members of your chosen species as well as the two hundred species chosen by your classmates. (e) All of these answers are correct.

48. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, which of the following would you expect to occur in campus plants, anemones, sharks, and the tapeworm inside the person sitting next to you? (a) transcription and translation (b) dehydration synthesis carried out by hydrolytic enzymes (c) the citric acid cycle producing pyruvate (d) exocytotic vesicles fusing with rough endoplasmic reticulum to release their contents (e) All of these.

49. Assuming your textbook diagrams apply to all organisms, which of the following would you expect to occur in clownfish, cnidarians, campus squirrels, and your chosen species? (a) substrates binding to active sites (b) nucleotide sequences transcribed into polypeptides (c) amino acid sequences translated into sequences of A, T, C, and G (d) pyruvate being produced by oxidative phosphorylation (e) All of these.

50. Which of the following would you expect to occur in the chosen species of every person in this class? (a) amino acids converted into carbon skeletons of the citric acid cycle (b) separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis anaphase I (c) replication of nucleotide sequences (d) All of these (e) None of these.

15. What do you know about members of the animal family Sciuridae? (a) They are all in the same genus. (b) They are all in different genera. (c) They are all in the same order. (d) They are all in different orders. (e) Some of them, but not all, are in the same order.

16. What do you know about members of the animal genus _Pelecanus_? (a) They are all in the same order. (b) They are all in the same family. (c) They all share certain structural features such as totipalmate feet. (d) Species were described by different scientists. (e) All of these answers are correct.

17. Using the order Pelecaniformes as an example, what can you conclude about molecular technology applied to evolutionary problems?

(a) Molecular evidence suggests common structural features can evolve separately in different groups.

(b) Molecular evidence confirms that structural features cannot evolve separately in different groups.

(c) Nucleotide sequence data shed no light on evolutionary problems in this group of birds.

(d) Relationships based on structural data match those based on molecular data.

(e) The families in this order are all closely related to one another.

18. Where would you go to collect a trochophore larva? (a) the Burgess shale (b) Pangaea (c) in the ocean off some rocky shore (d) any rock formation that contained Mesozoic fossils.

19. If you isolated large subunit ribosomal genes from a trochophore larva, you would expect those nucleotide sequences to reveal close relationships with (a) lungfish (b) molluscs and annelids (c) species from the Burgess shale (d) dinosaurs (e) modern birds.

20. Which of the following events occurs during the development of a starfish (sea star)? (a) gastrulation (b) trochophore larva metamorphosis (c) frame-shift mutation (d) formation of tentacles from trochophore tissues (e) all of these.

21. Which of the following events that occurs during starfish development probably also occurred during development of _Acanthostega gunnari_? (a) endoderm formation (b)gastrulation (c) mesoderm formation (d) metamorphosis (e) all of these.

10. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) more individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) environmental conditions produce genetic variants. (e) All of these answers are correct.

11. Paradigms are (a) views about nature that tend to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research. (b) predictions that cannot be falsified. (c) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups. (d) views about nature that lead to untestable predictions. (e) None of these answers is correct.

12. If you went looking on campus for a member of Domain Eukarya, where would be a good place to find one? (a) In the Union drinking coffee. (b) Digging around in the trash bins. (c) Growing in the Cather Garden surrounding that big red steel sculpture west of the library. (d) In a local grocery store. (e) Members of Eukarya commonly occur in all these places.

13. What kinds of organisms are you likely to find in some of Earth's most extreme environments but not find in any of the places listed in question #12? (a) Eubacteria (b) Members of Kingdom Protista (c) Archaea (d) sloths (e) Slime molds, fungi, and plants.

14. In which of the following groups would you expect to find a variety of carbon skeletons? (a) Protista (b) Eukarya (c) Eubacteria (d) Your chosen species and all its closest relatives. (e) All of these answers are correct.

15. In which of the following groups would you expect to find long polymers made out of nucleotides? (a) Protista (b) Eukarya (c) Eubacteria (d) Your chosen species and all its closest relatives. (e) All of these answers are correct.

65. Where would you go to collect a trochophore larva? (a) the Burgess shale (b) Pangaea (c) in the ocean off some rocky shore (d) any rock formation that contained Mesozoic fossils.

66. Using the order Pelecaniformes as an example, what can you conclude about molecular technology applied to evolutionary problems?

(a) Molecular evidence suggests common structural features can evolve separately in different groups.

(b) Molecular evidence confirms that structural features cannot evolve separately in different groups.

(c) Nucleotide sequence data shed no light on evolutionary problems in this group of birds.

(d) Relationships based on structural data match those based on molecular data.

(e) The families in this order are all closely related to one another.

67. If you isolated large subunit ribosomal genes from a trochophore larva, you would expect those nucleotide sequences to reveal close relationships with (a) lungfish (b) molluscs and annelids (c) species from the Burgess shale (d) dinosaurs (e) modern birds.

68. Which of the following events occurs during the development of a starfish (sea star)? (a) gastrulation (b) trochophore larva metamorphosis (c) frame-shift mutation (d) formation of tentacles from trochophore tissues (e) all of these.

107. _Mixotricha paradoxa_ is of interest to scientists because (a) its mitochondria contain DNA. (b) it shows how prokaryotes can form permanent associations with other cells. (c) it causes disease in cats and humans. (d) of its use in selection experiments. (e) All of these.

108. _Toxoplasma gondii_ should be of interest to UNL biology students because (a) it shows how cells of one species can live inside cells of another species. (b) it causes disease in humans. (c) campus cats could easily be infected with it. (d) All of these.

109. Members of the genus _Rickettsia_ should be of interest to UNL biology students because (a) they show how cells of one species can live inside cells of another species. (b) they cause disease in humans. (c) the genus was named for a Nebraska football player. (d) species of _Rickettsia_ have influenced military operations. (e) All of these.

110. A choanoflagellate is (a) a prokaryote. (b) part of a monophyletic group that includes animals. (c) a cell produced by secondary endosymbiosis involving red algae. (d) a cell demonstrating symbiosis with other prokaryotes. (e) All of these.

111. Members of a monophyletic group (a) share a common ancestor. (b) do not share a common ancestor. (c) include polyphyletic groups. (d) may include polyphyletic groups. (e) All of these.

112. Members of a polyophyletic group (a) do not share a common ancestor. (b) may include eukaryotes. (c) may include prokaryotes. (d) may include Archaea. (e) All of these.

113. According to the molecular phylogeny presented in your text and in lecture, most of the recognized groups of eukaryotes are (a) animals. (b) green plants and fungi. (c) single-celled organisms. (d) amoebas.

114. What would you expect to see in an electron microscope picture of the cross section of a flagellum? (a) many folded membranes (b) a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules (c) several mitochondria (d) one or more membrane-bound vesicles. (e) All of these.

115. If you collected many different species of choanoflagellates, you would expect to discover (a) some solitary species. (b) some stalked and colonial species. (c) some colonial species embedded in a gelatinous matrix. (d) species with collars around their flagella. (e) All of these.

116. If you did a microscopic dissection of a sponge, you would expect to discover (a) skeletal fibers. (b) cells that looked exactly like choanoflagellates. (c) empty spaces. (d) pores. (e) All of these.

117. If you studied sponge larvae, you would expect to discover (a) flagellated cells. (b) appendages homologous to a bat's wing. (c) metamorphosis into an adult coral. (d) metamorphosis into a jellyfish. (e) All of these.

118. To an evolutionary biologist looking for the origin of bilaterally symmetrical animals, an acoel flatworm most resembles (a) a sponge larva. (b) a colonial choanoflagellate. (c) the planula larva of _Obelia_. (d) an adult sponge. (e) a _Volvox_ colony.

119. What features are present in both sponges and humans? (a) cellular specialization (b) cell-to-cell interactions (c) skeletons (d) All of these. (e) None of these.

120. During the life cycle of a seaweed such as _Ulva_ species, gametes are produced by (a) spores. (b) gametophytes. (c) sporophytes. (d) choanoflagellates. (e) Any of these stages.

121. Placozoa is (a) a phylum with a single species. (b) the group to which choanoflagellates belong. (c) the group that includes both acoel flatworms, sponges, and choanoflagellates. (d) a stage in the life cycle of _Ulva_ and _Obelia_. (e) All of these.

122. Placozoans most resemble (a) seaweeds such as _Ulva_. (b) algae such as _Volvox_. (c) biologists' vision of the earliest animals. (d) sponges. (e) trochophore larvae.

123. What does a starfish gastrula have that a starfish blastula does not? (a) mitochondria (b) a layer of endoderm (c) cell-to-cell interactions (d) DNA.

124. Hypotheses about the origin of multicellularity come from study of (a) diversity among flagellates. (b) sponge life cycles. (c) embryological development of starfish. (d) strange phyla such as Placozoa. (e) All of these areas of biology serve as sources for such hypotheses.

125. Tests of hypotheses about evolutionary relationships and potential origins of various groups can be conducted using (a) DNA nucleotide sequences. (b) embryological development. (c) cladistic algorithms and software. (d) data about diversity among developmental events. (e) All of these.

126. Functional differences between starch and cellulose can be considered a result of (a) evolutionary divergence during the Mesozoic. (b) properties that emerge from the arrangement of C, H, and O atoms. (c) the origin of multicellular animals from planula larvae. (d) the origin of plants from choanoflagellates. (e) All of these.

127. What would you "see" if you looked at a flock of pelicans from the perspective of a molecular biologist? (a) DNA nucleotide sequences (b) mutations (c) primary structures of polypeptides (d) linked enzymatic reactions (e) All of these.

128. What would you "see" if you looked at a flock of pelicans from the perspective of an evolutionary biologist? (a) DNA nucleotide sequences (b) mutations (c) primary structures of polypeptides (d) pelican relatives (e) All of these.

130. Based on all available evidence, what do scientists believe they know about members of the genus _Homo_? (a) Several species have existed over the past 2-3 million years. (b) They all evolved from monkeys. (c) They and the chimpanzees form a polyphyletic group. (d) Their closest relatives are the Old World monkeys. (e) All of these.

131. A cladogram is (a) a diagram of energy flow. (b) a diagram of metabolic pathways. (c) a phylogenetic hypothesis. (d) a diagram of the relationship between anabolic and catabolic reactions. (e) None of these answers are correct.

132. The cladograms in your textbook and shown in class are constructed using (a) computer programs. (b) primary structures of polypeptides. (c) nucleotide sequences of ribosomal genes. (d) shared structural features. (e) All of these answers could be correct.

133. A good example of life's uniformity can be seen in the (a) general manner in which nucleic acids are assembled. (b) sequence of DNA nucleotides in various campus plant species. (c) primary structures of enzymes in campus squirrels. (d) characteristics that distinguish one campus plant species from another (e) None of these answers is correct.

134. A good example of life's enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen (a) in use of DNA nucleotide sequences to construct a phylogeny. (b) in genetic differences between roses and oak trees. (c) in the numbers of different enzymes found in a cell. (d) among students at UNL. (e) All of these.

135. Most of Earth's biological diversity can be found among the (a) vertebrates. (b) microorganisms. (c) various zoos. (d) agricultural products.

136. In general, what does a "Tree of Life" based on molecular data suggest? (a) Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary relationships can be developed and tested using appropriate technology. (b) There are two major groups of organisms we call "bacteria." (c) Among what we call "bacteria" there are organisms no more closely related to one another than to humans. (d) Dogs, mushrooms, and campus plants are more closely related to one another than any of them are to bacteria. (e) All of these.

138. A person who practices "tree thinking" would automatically view Morrill Hall specimens in terms of their (a) economic importance. (b) populations. (c) phylogenetic relationships. (d) geographical distribution. (e) All of these.

139. A "molecular clock" is intended to reveal (a) numbers and rates of nucleotide substitutions. (b) the amount of time covered by the fossil record. (c) the time following separation of closely related group. (d) the diversity of polypeptides among related species. (e) All of these.

140. Based mainly on evidence, biologists claim that (a) biological diversity was highest right after the Permian. (b) the vast majority of species that have ever lived are now extinct. (c) "molecular clocks" show true evolutionary relationships. (d) biological diversity diminished greatly during the Cambrian. (e) All of these.

141. Which of the following can be interpreted as being a result of plate tectonics? (a) Present day distribution of fossil fuels. (b) Racism and sexism. (c) Homologies between human and lungfish arm bones. (d) The Permian Extinction. (e) All of these.

142. In general, the goal of scientists doing research is to (a) control nature. (b) understand nature. (c) eliminate problems with a biological component. (d) stop continental drift.

143. In general, those developing technology have the goal of (a) controlling nature. (b) understanding nature. (c) eliminating problems that have a biological component. (d) stopping continental drift.

144. According to the Big Picture in Biology presentation, which of the following are likely the result of several billion years of Earth's geological and biological history? (a) current location of North America (b) present day distribution of petroleum supplies (c) agricultural economies of certain nations (d) distribution of certain species (e) All of these answers are correct.

145. According to the Big Picture in Biology presentation, which of the following current "hot button" social issues have a major biological component? (a) racism (b) sexism (c) sexual orientation (d) unwanted pregnancy (e) All of these answers are correct.

146. Neodarwinism refers to (a) population genetics as an addition to Darwinian principles. (b) the use of molecules to construct phylogenies. (c) a refutation of Darwinian principles. (d) the addition of Archaea to the so-called "Tree of Life" shown in class.

147. In general, mutations (a) are beneficial. (b) are deleterious. (c) spread quickly through populations. (d) result in new species. (e) are common.

148. In nature, selection operates on (a) genotypes. (b) alleles. (c) phenotypes. (d) multiple alleles.

149. Do biologists believe that humans are still evolving? (a) yes (b) no.

32. If you went looking on campus for a member of Domain Eukarya, where would be a good place to find one? (a) In the Union drinking coffee. (b) Digging around in the trash bins. (c) Growing in the Cather Garden surrounding that big red steel sculpture west of the library. (d) Slinking around the bases of buildings. (e) Members of Eukarya commonly occur in all these places.

33. What do you know about the nucleic acids within _Pelecanus occidentalis_ and the person sitting next to you? (a) At least some of them contain adenine and cytosine. (b) The sequences within their nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They are polymers. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

34. Members of domains Bacteria and Archaea should differ in (a) cell wall components. (b) the proteins associated with their DNA. (c) their responses to antibiotics. (d) All of these.

35. A monophyletic group within Protista should (a) have no common ancestor. (b) share a single common ancestor. (c) be structurally identical. (d) have similar life cycles. (e) All of these answers are true, depending on the group.

36. Members of a polyphyletic group within Eukarya (a) have no common ancestor. (b) share a single common ancestor. (c) be structurally identical. (d) have similar life cycles. (e) All of these answers are true, depending on the group.

37. What happens during the life cycle of a malarial parasite (genus _Plasmodium_ )? (a) Parasites from the red blood cells attack the liver. (b) Parasites reproduce in the liver before entering blood cells. (c) Parasites reproduce sexually inside red blood cells. (d) All of these things happen.

38. During the life cycle of a moss (a) gametophytes are haploid ( _n_ chromosomes). (b) gametophytes are diploid (2 _n_ chromosomes). (c) sporophytes are haploid ( _n_ ). (d) sporophytes release sperm into the environment. (e) All of these answers are correct.

39. During the life cycle of a vascular flowering plant (a) male gametophytes are reduced to pollen grains. (b) male gametophytes are diploid (2 _n_ chromosomes). (c) sporophytes are haploid ( _n_ chromosomes), (d) seeds are haploid ( _n_ chromosomes). (d) None of these answers are correct.

40. Considering data readily available to all of us, which of the following Darwinian principles should apply to humans? (a) Species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) Conditions are ideal for evolution into a new species of human-like animal on Earth. (e) All of these answers are correct.

25. If you studied alleles in a population and discovered that the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium did not correctly describe your results, you might conclude that (a) directional selection was occurring. (b) individuals from another population were moving into your study area. (c) disruptive selection was occurring. (d) there was evidence for mutation. (e) Any of these answers could be correct.

26. If you studied evolution in natural systems, you would expect to discover (a) both stabilizing and directional selection. (b) stabilizing but not disruptive selection. (c) directional but not stabilizing selection. (d) directional but not disruptive selection. (e) None of these answers are correct.

27. A frequency distribution obtained by plotting human birth weights against survival would illustrate (a) directional selection. (b) stabilizing selection. (c) disruptive selection. (d) the Hardy-Weinberg rule. (e) macroevolution.

28. Human growth hormone was genetically engineered so that it would grow in the bacterium _Escherichia coli_. The recombinant molecule was produced by splicing the human gene for the hormone to (a) bacterial DNA. (b) mouse DNA. (c) chemically synthesized DNA. (d) human DNA.

29. Concerns have been raised as to the safety of genetically modified organisms (GMOs). Which of the following would be a concern when modifying a plant to be resistant to a broad-spectrum herbicide? (a) An increased shelf life of fruit from the plants. (b) A decrease in the use of herbicides. (c) the production of herbicide-resistant weeds. (d) a decrease in food production.

30. Golden rice has been genetically engineered. It differs from other rice varieties because it contains genes that will produce (a) vitamin D. (b) beta-carotene. (c) herbicide resistance. (d) pesticide resistance. (e) omega-3 fatty acids.

31. Based on your trip to Morrill Hall, what can you conclude about the fossil record? (a) It can reveal behavior of extinct species. (b) It contains information about species that lived as long as a hundred million years ago. (c) It reveals diversity of related forms. (d) It shows diversity of homologous structures. (e) all of these.

32. Evidence from the fossil record is interpreted to mean that lungfish (a) first evolved in South America. (b) evolved on Pangaea then ended up in their present distribution because of continental drift. (c) migrated to South America and Australia from Pangaea. (d) migrated to Pangaea from South America, Africa, and Australia. (e) migrated to Australia and South America from Africa.

33. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, representatives of most modern phyla first appeared on Earth (a) in the Mesozoic Era. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Cretaceous Period. (e) within the past 10,000 years.

34. If the fossil record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth (a) for at least 400 million years. (b) for approximately 100 million years. (c) for no more than 230 million years. (d) at least since the Cambrian. (e) from the Pre-Cambrian until the Permian Extinctions.

35. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

36. Based on embryological and anatomical evidence, scientists conclude that the radius and ulna of humans (a) are homologous to those of an extinct fish-like amphibian. (b) function in the same manner as marine invertebrate shells. (c) reveal something about the nesting behavior of an _Oviraptor_ species. (d) show how bat wing membranes are supported.

37. What do you know about members of the animal family Sciuridae? (a) They are all in the same genus. (b) They are all in different genera. (c) They are all in the same order. (d) They are all in different orders. (e) Some of them, but not all, are in the same order.

38. What do you know about members of the animal genus _Pelecanus_? (a) They are all in the same order. (b) They are all in the same family. (c) They all share certain structural features such as totipalmate feet. (d) Species were described by different scientists. (e) All of these answers are correct.

39. Using the order Pelecaniformes as an example, what can you conclude about molecular technology applied to evolutionary problems?

(a) Molecular evidence suggests common structural features can evolve separately in different groups.

(b) Molecular evidence confirms that structural features cannot evolve separately in different groups.

(c) Nucleotide sequence data shed no light on evolutionary problems in this group of birds.

(d) Relationships based on structural data match those based on molecular data.

(e) The families in this order are all closely related to one another

40. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

41. The Darwinian principles state that (a) natural populations consist of identical individuals. (b) gene pools consist of identical individuals. (c) allele frequencies remain stable for long periods in natural populations. (d) natural populations of a species exhibit phenotypic variation (e) all phenotypes are equally successful.

42. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

43. In a natural population of squirrels, you would expect (a) phenotypic variation. (b) more offspring to be produced than actually survive. (c) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to apply to all loci unless demonstrated otherwise. (d) some selection to be occurring. (e) All of these.

44. If you were conducting a research project on the evolutionary biology of squirrels in Lincoln, NE, what would you expect to observe? (a) superfecundity (b) macroevolution (c) evidence for continental drift (d) a reduction in the number of squirrels' toes over time (e) All of these.

45. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can't test your expectations with the information given.

46. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

47. The example of agricultural research using wild mustard could be considered an illustration of (a) stabilizing selection. (b) disruptive selection. (c) directional selection. (d) All of these. (e) None of these processes would have been involved in the research on wild mustard.

48. When humans purposefully carry out microevolution using dogs, they use (a) stabilizing selection. (b) disruptive selection. (c) directional selection. (d) All of these. (e) None of these processes would have been involved in the development of various breeds of dogs.

49. The endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin proposes that (a) mitochondria are derived from bacteria (b) chloroplasts are derived from Golgi bodies (c) nuclear envelopes are constructed according to the fluid mosaic model (d) Golgi bodies are derived from chloroplasts (e) All of these events are possible.

50. _Mixotricha paradoxa_ and other flagellates that live in termites are of interest to scientists because (a) their mitochondria contain DNA. (b) they show how prokaryotes can form permanent associations with other cells. (c) they cause disease in cats and humans. (d) of their use in selection experiments. (e) All of these.

*****

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Chapter 6 – Evolution

37. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) in nature, more individuals are produced than can survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) en-vironmental conditions produce genetic variants.

76. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can't test your expectations with the information given.

77. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

78. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying macroevolution? (a) mol-ecular biology (b) cladistics (c) paleontology (d) comparative anatomy (e) all of these.

79. Among various phenotypes in a population of a single species, those that are the most fit are (a) the largest (b) the strongest (c) the meanest and most aggressive (d) those that reproduce the most (e) the fastest.

80. Before Darwinian selection will occur, a single species' population must (a) be variable in phenotype (b) be limited (c) vary in reproductive capacity (d) all of these (e) none of these.

81. Among vertebrates, sources of genetic variation would include (a) mutation (b) independent assortment (c) crossing over (d) all of these.

82. Among vertebrates, mutations potentially affect (a) protein primary structure (b) protein secondary structure (c) enzyme function (d) fitness (e) all of these.

83. According to our present understanding of geological history, when did Pangaea break apart? (a) during the Cambrian (b) during the Mesozoic (c) about 500 million years ago (d) during the last Ice Age (e) at the end of the K-T extinctions.

84. According to our present understanding of the fossil record, the Permian extinction occurred about (a) half a billion years ago (b) at the end of the Cretaceous (c) at the end of the Cambrian (d) at the end of the Paleozoic (e) during the Cenozoic.

85. The distribution of living and fossil lungfish suggests these fishes (a) evolved in South America (b) originated in Australia (c) originated in Pangaea prior to its breakup (d) migrated to all the southern continents after the breakup of Pangaea (e) migrated to Africa and Australia from South America.

86. Evidence from the fossil record suggests that during the Permian extinction (a) dinosaurs became extinct (b) about 90% of all genera became extinct (c) pentadactyl appendages evolved (d) lungfish migrated to Africa and South America (e) all of these.

87. Which of the following are included in the fossil record? (a) footprints (b) burrows (c) skull bones (d) nests and eggs (e) all of these.

88. Which of the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil record? (a) nesting behavior (b) movement (c) ecological relationships (d) fate of homologous structures (e) all of these.

89. Bat and bird wings (a) both are made from pentadactyl appendages (b) have similar internal structure (c) both exhibit elongation of several "fingers" (d) both exhibit reduction in number of "fingers" (e) function similarly but are not homologous.

90. Proximal problems are problems (a) of origin (b) involving evolutionary relationships (c) of function (d) that are essentially "why" questions (e) cannot be studied experimentally.

91. Ultimate problems are problems (a) of origin (b) of function (c) that are essentially "how" questions (d) that must be solved before we can control processes such as cell division (e) that must be studied experimentally.

92. Which of the following structures in your body are considered homologous to the same structures in fossil plesiosaurs, pterosaurs, and lobe-finned fish? (a) humerus (b) radius (c) ulna (d) all of these (e) none of these.

93. Which of the following would probably be the best outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of one family of beetles? (a) lobe-finned fish (b) another family of beetles (c) the ingroup family of beetles (d) some group of plants (e) a true bug.

94. How might you test a phylogenetic hypothesis involving living horses and their relatives? (a) construct a phylogeny using ribosomal DNA (b) construct a phylogeny using primary structure of homologous proteins (c) construct a phylogeny incorporating fossil horses and camels (d) none of these methods would work (e) all of these methods would work.

95. In a cladistic analysis, the principle of parsimony (a) minimizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (b) maximizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (c) minimizes the number of shared derived traits (d) eliminates monophyletic clades.

96. Phylogenies suggest (a) the best outgroup (b) a sequence of evolutionary events (c) the best set of characters to use in analysis (d) the correct plesiomorphic characters (e) all of these.

97. Molecular phylogenies can be constructed using (a) primary protein structure (b) nucleotide sequences (c) frequencies of isozymes in a population (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

98. Early DNA-DNA hybridization studies showed (a) humans and chimps shared 99% of their nucleotide sequences (b) humans were more closely related to gorillas than to chimps (c) DNA hybridization techniques were useless as tools for studying evolution (d) all of these.

99. If molecular biologists' interpretations of human origins are correct, (a) humans originated in Africa (b) humans evolved in several different places then interbred (c) _Homo sapiens_ is the only species of its genus to have ever lived (d) _H. sapiens_ is one of at least 50 species of _Homo_ that have lived.

79. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Permian age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) flowering plants (b) dinosaurs (c) birds (d) amphibians (e) all of these.

80. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Tertiary age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) trilobites (b) placoderms (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

81. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Ordovician age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) birds (b) insects (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

1. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

2. The Darwinian principles state that (a) natural populations consist of identical individuals. (b) gene pools consist of identical individuals. (c) allele frequencies remain stable for long periods in natural populations. (d) natural populations of a species exhibit phenotypic variation (e) all phenotypes are equally successful.

3. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

4. Microevolution is considered to be (a) slight changes in the gene frequencies in a population. (b) slight changes in the phenotype frequencies in a population. (c) a result of selection. (d) a phenomenon that is similar to plant breeding in agricultural research. (e) all of these.

5. In a natural population of squirrels, you would expect (a) phenotypic variation. (b) more offspring to be produced than actually survive. (c) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to apply to all loci unless demonstrated otherwise. (d) some selection to be occurring. (e) all of these.

6. If you were conducting a research project on the evolutionary biology of squirrels in Lincoln, NE, what would you expect to observe? (a) superfecundity (b) macroevolution (c) evidence for continental drift (d) a reduction in the number of squirrels' toes over time (e) all of these.

7. In general, what should the average person know about the Galapagos (Darwin's) finches? (a) They became extinct at the end of the Permian. (b) They exhibit diverse and variable bill structures related to food sources and availability. (c) Most are brightly colored. (d) Darwin found them throughout many parts of the world. (e) all of these.

8. Scientists (including Darwin) generally consider that Galapagos (Darwin's) finches best illustrate which of the following phenomena? (a) genetic drift (b) adaptive radiation (c) the Permian extinction (d) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (e) the Central Dogma.

9. If you went to the grocery store to study evolution, which of the following would you consider produced by artificial selection using a single original species? (a) cabbage (b) Brussels sprouts (c) cauliflower (d) broccoli (e) all of these.

10. Which of the following can be considered the results of an experiment in which humans actually tested a hypothesis regarding microevolution (whether they intended to or not)? (a) drug resistant bacteria (b) pesticide resistant insects (c) broccoli (d) corn (e) all of these.

11. Based on your trip to Morrill Hall, what can you conclude about the fossil record? (a) It can reveal behavior of extinct species. (b) It contains information about species that lived as long as a hundred million years ago. (c) It reveals diversity of related forms. (d) It shows diversity of homologous structures. (e) all of these.

12. If you studied a large series of dinosaur footprints, what might you expect to infer? (a) The number of individuals involved. (b) That natural selection had occurred. (c) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applied to their population. (d) The frequencies of several alleles. (e) all of these.

13. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

14. Evidence used to establish homology of vertebrate appendages is derived primarily from (a) radio-isotope dating of Permian-age rocks. (b) comparative studies of embryological development. (c) use of the appendages as indicated by Cretaceous and Tertiary fossils. (d) phylogenies based on amino acid sequences of certain proteins. (e) studies of gene frequency changes in populations undergoing selection.

15. According to the fossil record, the Cambrian period (a) ended with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) began with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (c) was the time most modern animal phyla appeared on Earth. (d) was the time mammals first appeared on Earth. (e) was the time when the first land vertebrates appeared on Earth.

16. According to the fossil record, what evidently happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Most of the modern animal phyla first appeared. (b) The dinosaurs became extinct. (c) Vast numbers of species became extinct. (d) Flowering plants appeared. (e) There was a great increase in the diversity of mammals, birds, and pollinating insects.

17. The phrase "the Cambrian explosion" refers to (a) the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) the appearance, in the fossil record, of most of the modern animal phyla. (c) a great increase in the diversity of angiosperms. (d) a great increase in the diversity of mammals. (e) all of these.

18. Which of the following pairs of structures would be considered analogous but not homologous? (a) bird wings and insect wings (b) bird wings and bat wings (c) bat wings and horse front legs (d) bird wings and horse front legs (e) all of these.

19. Which of the following pairs of structures would be considered homologous but not analogous? (a) bird wings and insect wings (b) bat wings and horse front legs (c) insect wings and horse front legs (d) bird wings and bat wings (e) horse front legs and horse hind legs.

20. Evidence from developmental studies indicates that plant leaves can evolve into (a) spines. (b) jaw-like structures that catch insects. (c) structures that mimic flowers. (d) all of these.

21. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

22. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.51, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.49 (d) zero (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

23. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.6, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

24. In a breeding population where you know for certain that only 1% of the individuals are true breeding dominant phenotypes, what would you predict is the frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.1 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

45. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can't test your expectations with the information given.

46. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

47. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying microevolution? (a) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (b) The Central Dogma (c) cladistics (d) paleontology (e) they are all about equally effective.

48. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying macroevolution? (a) mol-ecular biology (b) cladistics (c) paleontology (d) comparative anatomy (e) all of these.

49. Among various phenotypes in a population of a single species, those that are the most fit are (a) the largest (b) the strongest (c) the meanest and most aggressive (d) those that reproduce the most (e) the fastest.

69. Before Darwinian selection will occur, a single species' population must (a) be variable in phenotype (b) be limited (c) vary in reproductive capacity (d) all of these (e) none of these.

70. In a phylogeny of vertebrate classes, endothermy evidently arose (a) once in the common ancestor of birds and mammals (b) twice, once in birds and once in mammals (c) in all the classes.

71. Among vertebrates, behavioral regulation of temperature occurs in (a) amphibians (b) reptiles (c) some birds (d) some mammals (e) all of these.

72. Among vertebrates, sources of genetic variation would include (a) mutation (b) independent assortment (c) crossing over (d) all of these.

73. Among vertebrates, mutations potentially affect (a) protein primary structure (b) protein secondary structure (c) enzyme function (d) fitness (e) all of these.

74. Which of the following are bugs? (a) ants (b) wasps (c) beetles (d) members of the Hemiptera (e) all of these.

76. According to our present understanding of geological history, when did Pangea break apart? (a) during the Cambrian (b) during the Mesozoic (c) about 500 million years ago (d) during the last Ice Age (e) at the end of the K-T extinctions.

77. According to our present understanding of the fossil record, the Permian extinction occurred about (a) half a billion years ago (b) at the end of the Cretaceous (c) at the end of the Cambrian (d) at the end of the Paleozoic (e) during the Cenozoic.

78. The distribution of living and fossil lungfish suggests these fishes (a) evolved in South America (b) originated in Australia (c) originated in Pangea prior to its breakup (d) migrated to all the southern continents after the breakup of Pangea (e) migrated to Africa and Australia from South America.

79. Evidence from the fossil record suggests that during the Permian extinction (a) dinosaurs became extinct (b) about 90% of all genera became extinct (c) pentadactyl appendages evolved (d) lungfish migrated to Africa and South America (e) all of these.

80. Which of the following are included in the fossil record? (a) footprints (b) burrows (c) skull bones (d) nests and eggs (e) all of these.

81. Which of the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil record? (a) nesting behavior (b) movement (c) ecological relationships (d) fate of homologous structures (e) all of these.

82. Bat and bird wings (a) both are made from pentadactyl appendages (b) have similar internal structure (c) both exhibit elongation of several "fingers" (d) both exhibit reduction in number of "fingers" (e) function similarly but are not homologous.

83. Proximal problems are problems (a) of origin (b) involving evolutionary relationships (c) of function (d) that are essentially "why" questions (e) cannot be studied experimentally.

84. Ultimate problems are problems (a) of origin (b) of function (c) that are essentially "how" questions (d) that must be solved before we can control processes such as cell division (e) that must be studied experimentally.

85. Which of the following structures in your body are considered homologous to the same structures in fossil plesiosaurs, pterosaurs, and lobe-finned fish? (a) humerus (b) radius (c) ulna (d) all of these (e) none of these.

86. Which of the following would probably be the best outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of one family of beetles? (a) lobe-finned fish (b) another family of beetles (c) the ingroup family of beetles (d) some group of plants (e) a true bug.

87. How might you test a phylogenetic hypothesis involving living Perissodactyla? (a) construct a phylogeny using ribosomal DNA (b) construct a phylogeny using primary structure of homologous proteins (c) construct a phylogeny incorporating fossil horses and camels (d) none of these methods would work (e) all of these methods would work.

88. Among the Artiodactyla, plesiomorphic (primitive) characters would include (a) endothermy (b) a backbone (c) hair (d) all of these (e) none of these.

89. If you were constructing a phylogeny of the Artiodactyla using structural characters, apomorphic (derived) characters would include (a) loss of toes (b) hair (c) endothermy (d) all of these (e) none of these.

90. In a phylogeny, clades are considered (a) members of the outgroup (b) monophyletic (c) to contain only some descendents of a common ancestor (d) to contain descendents of several ancestral groups.

91. In a cladistic analysis, the principle of parsimony (a) minimizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (b) maximizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (c) minimizes the number of shared derived traits (d) eliminates monophyletic clades.

92. Phylogenies suggest (a) the best outgroup (b) a sequence of evolutionary events (c) the best set of characters to use in analysis (d) the correct plesiomorphic characters (e) all of these.

93. Molecular phylogenies can be constructed using (a) primary protein structure (b) nucleotide sequences (c) frequencies of isozymes in a population (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

94. Early DNA-DNA hybridization studies showed (a) humans and chimps shared 99% of their nucleotide sequences (b) humans were more closely related to gorillas than to chimps (c) DNA hybridization techniques were useless as tools for studying evolution (d) all of these.

95. If molecular biologists' interpretations of human origins are correct, (a) humans originated in Africa (b) humans evolved in several different places then interbred (c) _Homo sapiens_ is the only species of its genus to have ever lived (d) _H. sapiens_ is one of at least 50 species of _Homo_ that have lived.

79. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Permian age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) flowering plants (b) dinosaurs (c) birds (d) amphibians (e) all of these.

80. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Tertiary age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) trilobites (b) placoderms (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

81. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Ordovician age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) birds (b) insects (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

82. According to available evidence, mass extinctions occurred (a) at the end of the Paleozoic. (b) last year. (c) at the end of the Mesozoic. (d) at the end of the Cambrian. (e) at all of these times.

83. Which of the following groups would be represented in Paleozoic fossils but not in Mesozoic fossils? (a) dinosaurs (b) flowering plants (c) trilobites (d) mammals (e) birds.

84. Which of the following groups would be prominent among Mesozoic fossils but not among Paleozoic fossils? (a) dinosaurs (b) flowering plants (c) trilobites (d) mammals (e) birds.

85. Which of the following processes do scientists either know or believe have contributed to the present distribution and diversity of living organisms on Earth? (a) meteors (b) fire (c) continental drift (d) evolution (e) all of these.

86. Which of the following would you expect to be represented in the fossil record? (a) protists (b) prokaryotes (c) mammals (d) flowering plants (e) all of these.

41. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

42. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

43. Evidence used to establish homology of vertebrate appendages is derived primarily from (a) radio-isotope dating of Permian-age rocks. (b) comparative studies of embryological development. (c) use of the appendages as indicated by Cretaceous and Tertiary fossils. (d) phylogenies based on amino acid sequences of certain proteins. (e) studies of gene frequency changes in populations undergoing selection.

44. According to the fossil record, the Cambrian period (a) ended with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) began with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (c) was the time most modern animal phyla appeared on Earth. (d) was the time mammals first appeared on Earth. (e) was the time when the first land vertebrates appeared on Earth.

45. According to the fossil record, what evidently happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Most of the modern animal phyla first appeared. (b) The dinosaurs became extinct. (c) Vast numbers of species became extinct. (d) Flowering plants appeared. (e) There was a great increase in the diversity of mammals, birds, and pollinating insects.

46. The phrase "the Cambrian explosion" refers to (a) the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) the appearance, in the fossil record, of most of the modern animal phyla. (c) a great increase in the diversity of angiosperms. (d) a great increase in the diversity of mammals. (e) all of these.

47. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

48. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.51, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.49 (d) zero (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

49. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.6, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

50. In a breeding population where you know for certain that only 1% of the individuals are true breeding dominant phenotypes, what would you predict is the frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.1 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

11. The Darwinian principles that are best supported by observations include the following: (a) Species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) All of these answers are correct.

12. According to Darwinian principles, the organisms that are most successful are the (a) largest. (b) fastest. (c) strongest. (d) ones that reproduce the most. (e) All of these answers are correct.

13. Considering data readily available to all of us, which of the following Darwinian principles should apply to humans? (a) Species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) More individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) Environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) Conditions are ideal for evolution into a new species of human-like animal on Earth. (e) All of these answers are correct.

14. Superfecundity refers to the observed fact that (a) species have variable traits that can be inherited. (b) more individuals are produced than survive to reproduce. (c) environmental conditions tend to determine which genetic variants are most successful at reproducing. (d) environmental conditions produce genetic variants. (e) All of these answers are correct.

1. Based on your trip to Morrill Hall, what can you conclude about the fossil record? (a) It can reveal behavior of extinct species. (b) It contains information about species that lived as long as a hundred million years ago. (c) It reveals diversity of related forms. (d) It shows diversity of homologous structures. (e) all of these.

2. Evidence from the fossil record is interpreted to mean that lungfish (a) first evolved in South America. (b) evolved on Pangaea then ended up in their present distribution because of continental drift. (c) migrated to South America and Australia from Pangaea. (d) migrated to Pangaea from South America, Africa, and Australia. (e) migrated to Australia and South America from Africa.

3. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, representatives of most modern phyla first appeared on Earth (a) in the Mesozoic Era. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Cretaceous Period. (e) within the past 10,000 years.

4. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, flowering plants (angiosperms) appeared on Earth (a) during the Carboniferous period. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Cretaceous Period. (e) within the past 10,000 years.

5. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, most modern groups of insects appeared on Earth (a) during the Carboniferous period. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Permian Period. (e) within the past 6,000 years.

6. According to scientists' best estimates, approximately when did the dinosaurs become extinct? (a) 250 million years ago (b) 65 million years ago (c) 4.6 billion years ago (d) 250 billion years ago (e) within the last 10,000 years.

7. If scientists are correct in their interpretation of the evidence regarding Earth's history, what event of major evolutionary significance happened during the Mesozoic? (a) the breakup of Pangaea (b) the Permian extinction (c) the origin of land plants (d) extinction of wooly mammoths (e) all of these.

8. If the fossil record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth (a) for at least 400 million years. (b) for approximately 100 million years. (c) for no more than 230 million years. (d) at least since the Cambrian. (e) from the Pre-Cambrian until the Permian Extinctions.

9. If you were a scientist studying the fossil record, what kind of materials might you be working with? (a) bone fragments (b) burrows and tracks (c) shells (d) leaves (e) any of these.

10. Which of the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil record? (a) nesting behavior (b) movement (c) ecological relationships (d) fate of homologous structures (e) all of these.

11. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

12. Based on embryological and anatomical evidence, scientists conclude that the radius and ulna of humans (a) are homologous to those of extinct fish. (b) function in the same manner as marine invertebrate shells. (c) reveal something about the nesting behavior of an _Oviraptor_ species. (d) show how bat wing membranes are supported.

13. Fossils from the Burgess shale reveal (a) _Oviraptor_ sp. nesting behavior. (b) embryological development of trilobites. (c) extreme diversity of Cambrian invertebrate forms. (d) the origin of coal deposits during the Carboniferous. (e) all of these.

14. Scientists consider _Acanthostega_ _gunnari_ to be a good example of (a) primates that are ancestral to humans. (b) early vertebrates that colonized land. (c) trilobite diversity. (d) fossil birds that evidently evolved into dinosaurs. (e) dinosaurs that are ancestral to modern birds.

48. What happens when the population of a species increases? (a) Genetic diversity decreases. (b) Genetic diversity increases. (c) Genetic diversity stays about the same as it was in small populations. (d) Biologists do not have techniques for measuring genetic diversity.

49. What observations lead scientists to conclude that humans are evolving fairly rapidly? (a) Human populations are increasing rapidly. (b) Human populations are increasing far more rapidly in some areas of the world than in others. (c) Human populations will stop growing before the mass of humanity reaches the mass of Planet Earth. (d) Human genetic diversity is increasing rapidly. (e) All of these factors contribute to scientist's conclusions.

50. Mutations affecting phenotype and reproductive success can be expected to occur (a) in structural genes. (b) in regulatory genes. (c) in genes for tRNA. (d) in nucleotide sequences that function as "punctuation marks" during gene expression. (e) All of these answers are correct.

54. Fossils from the Burgess shale reveal (a) _Oviraptor_ sp. nesting behavior. (b) embryological development of trilobites. (c) extreme diversity of Cambrian invertebrate forms. (d) the origin of coal deposits during the Carboniferous. (e) all of these.

55. Scientists consider _Acanthostega_ _gunnari_ to be a good example of (a) primates that are ancestral to humans. (b) early vertebrates that colonized land. (c) trilobite diversity. (d) fossil birds that evidently evolved into dinosaurs. (e) dinosaurs that are ancestral to modern birds.

56. What do you know about members of the animal family Sciuridae? (a) They are all in the same genus. (b) They are all in different genera. (c) They are all in the same order. (d) They are all in different orders. (e) Some of them, but not all, are in the same order.

57. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

58. Evidence from the fossil record is interpreted to mean that lungfish (a) first evolved in South America. (b) evolved on Pangaea then ended up in their present distribution because of continental drift. (c) migrated to South America and Australia from Pangaea. (d) migrated to Pangaea from South America, Africa, and Australia. (e) migrated to Australia and South America from Africa.

59. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, representatives of most modern phyla first appeared on Earth (a) in the Mesozoic Era. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Cretaceous Period. (e) within the past 10,000 years.

60. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, flowering plants (angiosperms) appeared on Earth (a) during the Carboniferous period. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Cretaceous Period. (e) within the past 10,000 years.

61. According to scientists' interpretation of the fossil record, most modern groups of insects appeared on Earth (a) during the Carboniferous period. (b) shortly after the Permian extinctions. (c) during the Cambrian Period. (d) during the Permian Period. (e) within the past 6,000 years.

62. According to scientists' best estimates, approximately when did the dinosaurs become extinct? (a) 250 million years ago (b) 65 million years ago (c) 4.6 billion years ago (d) 250 billion years ago (e) within the last 10,000 years.

63. If scientists are correct in their interpretation of the evidence regarding Earth's history, what event of major evolutionary significance happened during the Mesozoic? (a) the breakup of Pangaea (b) the Permian extinction (c) the origin of land plants (d) extinction of wooly mammoths (e) all of these.

64. If the fossil record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth (a) for at least 400 million years. (b) for approximately 100 million years. (c) for no more than 230 million years. (d) at least since the Cambrian. (e) from the Pre-Cambrian until the Permian Extinctions.

88. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

89. The Darwinian principles state that (a) natural populations consist of identical individuals. (b) gene pools consist of identical individuals. (c) allele frequencies remain stable for long periods in natural populations. (d) natural populations of a species exhibit phenotypic variation (e) all phenotypes are equally successful.

90. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

91. A frequency distribution obtained by plotting human birth weights against survival would illustrate (a) directional selection. (b) stabilizing selection. (c) disruptive selection. (d) the Hardy-Weinberg rule. (e) macroevolution.

92. If you studied evolution in natural systems, you would expect to discover (a) both stabilizing and directional selection. (b) stabilizing but not disruptive selection. (c) directional but not stabilizing selection. (d) directional but not disruptive selection. (e) None of these answers are correct.

93. In a natural population of squirrels, you would expect (a) phenotypic variation. (b) more offspring to be produced than actually survive. (c) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to apply to all loci unless demonstrated otherwise. (d) some selection to be occurring. (e) All of these.

94. If you were conducting a research project on the evolutionary biology of squirrels in Lincoln, NE, what would you expect to observe? (a) superfecundity (b) macroevolution (c) evidence for continental drift (d) a reduction in the number of squirrels' toes over time (e) All of these.

95. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can't test your expectations with the information given.

96. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

97. The example of agricultural research using wild mustard could be considered an illustration of (a) stabilizing selection. (b) disruptive selection. (c) directional selection. (d) All of these. (e) None of these processes would have been involved in the research on wild mustard.

98. When humans purposefully carry out microevolution using dogs, they use (a) stabilizing selection. (b) disruptive selection. (c) directional selection. (d) All of these. (e) None of these processes would have been involved in the development of various breeds of dogs.

99. If you studied alleles in a population and discovered that the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium correctly described your results, you would conclude that (a) directional selection was occurring. (b) mating among members of this population was truly random. (c) disruptive selection was occurring. (d) there was evidence for mutation. (e) Any of these answers could be correct.

100. If you studied alleles in a population and discovered that the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium did not correctly describe your results, you might conclude that (a) directional selection was occurring. (b) individuals from another population were moving into your study area. (c) disruptive selection was occurring. (d) there was evidence for mutation. (e) Any of these answers could be correct.

101. What is meant by the term "gene frequency"? (a) Decimal fraction proportion of an allele in a population. (b) Decimal fraction proportion of a genotype in a population. (c) Decimal fraction proportion of a phenotype in a population. (d) The 2pq component of a Hardy-Weinberg equation. (e) All of these answers could be correct.

102. You should be able to predict an allele's frequency in a population if you know the (a) frequency of the recessive phenotype. (b) frequency of the dominant phenotype. (c) frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype. (d) proportion of homozygous dominant and heterozygotes. (e) All of these answers are correct.

103. Microevolution is considered to be (a) slight changes in the gene frequencies in a population. (b) slight changes in the phenotype frequencies in a population. (c) a result of selection. (d) a phenomenon that is similar to plant breeding in agricultural research. (e) All of these.

104. Macroevolution is most likely to result from (a) mutations in regulatory genes. (b) directional selection. (c) stabilizing selection. (d) selection against structural genes. (e) selection for phenotypes produced by structural genes.

105. The endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin proposes that (a) mitochondria are derived from bacteria (b) chloroplasts are derived from Golgi bodies (c) nuclear envelopes are constructed according to the fluid mosaic model (d) Golgi bodies are derived from chloroplasts (e) All of these events are possible.

106. Evidence to support the endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin comes from the (a) structure of Golgi bodies. (b) metabolic pathways in mitochondria. (c) function of plasma membrane. (d) life cycle of stramenopiles. (e) structure of mitochondrial DNA.

*****

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Chapter 7 – Ecology

33. When a cat eats a mouse then stores mouse carbon skeletons as cat protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the mouse ends up in cat polysaccharide. (b) most of the potential energy in the mouse is consumed in the process, being used to build cat molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the cat than was originally stored in the mouse. (d) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the cat. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

34. When a mouse eats seeds then stores seed carbon skeletons as mouse protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the seeds ends up in mouse molecules. (b) most of the potential energy in the seeds is saved in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the mouse than was originally stored in the seeds. (d) most of the potential energy in the seeds is consumed in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

35. True herbivores eat (a) seeds. (b) leaves. (c) roots. (d) fruit. (e) any of these.

36. Carnivores may eat (a) other carnivores. (b) each other. (c) mice. (d) some of the cats that live wild on campus. (e) all of these.

37. Primary consumers consume (a) secondary consumers. (b) producers. (c) primary consumers. (d) consumers living at several different trophic levels.

38. If a campus mouse eats seeds, peanut butter from a discarded sandwich, a roach in Manter Hall, and part of a dead bird lying in a campus flower bed, then that mouse is (a) a primary producer. (b) living at several different trophic levels. (c) living at a single trophic level. (d) carrying out Calvin cycle reactions. (e) all of these.

39. Secondary consumers consume (a) secondary consumers. (b) producers. (c) primary consumers. (d) consumers living at several different trophic levels.

40. In an ecosystem, producers produce (a) ATP. (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. (c) proteins. (d) enzymes. (e) all of these.

41. In an ecosystem, potential chemical energy stored in a population of secondary consumers is (a) more than the amount of potential chemical energy stored in a population of primary consumers. (b) less than the amount of potential chemical energy stored in a population of primary consumers. (c) more than the amount of potential chemical energy stored or made by in the ecosystem's producers. (d) equal to the amount of potential chemical energy stored in the producers plus the primary consumers.

42. In an ecosystem, potential chemical energy stored in or produced by a population of producers consists of (a) glyceraldehyde-e-phosphate. (b) enzymes. (c) cell membranes. (d) ATP. (e) all of these.

43. How do secondary consumers get their supply of carbon skeletons? (a) by building them from carbon dioxide and water. (b) through the process of photosynthesis. (c) by eating primary consumers. (d) by carrying out Calvin cycle reactions. (e) by carrying out reactions of the electron transport system.

44. In the United States, human beings typically (a) live at several different trophic levels. (b) play the ecological role of primary producers. (c) fix carbon dioxide by way of the Calvin cycle reactions. (d) use Calvin cycle reactions to build carbon skeletons.

45. What happens to the potential chemical energy in an ecosystem when consumers living at high trophic levels consume consumers living at lower trophic levels?

(a) Some is lost as heat.

(b) Some is used to build proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids.

(c) Some is used to build mitochondria and enzymes of the electron transport system.

(d) Some ends up in decomposers such as fungi.

(e) All of these.

47. When a cat eats a mouse then stores mouse carbon skeletons as cat protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the mouse ends up in cat polysaccharide. (b) most of the potential energy in the mouse is consumed in the process, being used to build cat molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the cat than was originally stored in the mouse. (d) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the cat. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

48. When a mouse eats seeds then stores seed carbon skeletons as mouse protein, then (a) most of the potential energy in the seeds ends up in mouse molecules. (b) most of the potential energy in the seeds is saved in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (c) more potential energy ends up in the mouse than was originally stored in the seeds. (d) most of the potential energy in the seeds is consumed in the process, being used to build mouse molecules. (e) anabolic reactions produce ATP in the mouse.

49. Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in junk food? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

50. Assuming textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in junk food could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) starch (b) soy bean protein (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

51. Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could end up as part of a DNA strand that you pass on to one of your children? (a) Krebs cycle intermediates (b) carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids (c) nitrogen from beef (d) a 2-carbon piece carried by acetyl CoA (e) any of these.

52. At this moment, it is theoretically possible that you are (a) making DNA using nitrogen that was once in a dinosaur. (b) breathing out CO2 that could end up in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate in your favorite campus plant. (c) making polypeptides using carbon that was once in your pet cat's Krebs cycle intermediates. (d) carrying out catabolic reactions using the products of photosynthesis. (e) any of these.

52. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

53. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stay the same (d) you can't test your expectations with the information given.

54. If, in an experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be (a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the same as that of the recessive allele (e) none of these.

55. If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.51, what is the expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.49 (d) zero (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

56. If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.6, what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait? (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.64 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

57. In a breeding population where you know for certain that only 1% of the individuals are true breeding dominant phenotypes, what would you predict is the frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.1 (e) you can't determine the answer from the information given.

58. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying macroevolution? (a) mol-ecular biology (b) cladistics (c) paleontology (d) comparative anatomy (e) all of these.

59. Among various phenotypes in a population of a single species, those that are the most fit are (a) the largest (b) the strongest (c) the meanest and most aggressive (d) those that reproduce the most (e) the fastest.

60. The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive. (c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all phenotypes are equally successful. (e) selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

61. The Darwinian principles state that (a) natural populations consist of identical individuals. (b) gene pools consist of identical individuals. (c) allele frequencies remain stable for long periods in natural populations. (d) natural populations of a species exhibit phenotypic variation (e) all phenotypes are equally successful.

62. The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce. (c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d) all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by selection against homozygous recessives.

63. Before Darwinian selection will occur, a single species' population must (a) be variable in phenotype (b) be limited (c) vary in reproductive capacity (d) all of these (e) none of these.

64. Among vertebrates, sources of genetic variation would include (a) mutation (b) independent assortment (c) crossing over (d) all of these.

65. Among vertebrates, mutations potentially affect (a) protein primary structure (b) protein secondary structure (c) enzyme function (d) fitness (e) all of these.

66. According to our present understanding of geological history, when did Pangaea break apart? (a) during the Cambrian (b) during the Mesozoic (c) about 500 million years ago (d) during the last Ice Age (e) at the end of the K-T extinctions.

67. According to our present understanding of the fossil record, the Permian extinction occurred about (a) half a billion years ago (b) at the end of the Cretaceous (c) at the end of the Cambrian (d) at the end of the Paleozoic (e) during the Cenozoic.

68. The distribution of living and fossil lungfish suggests these fishes (a) evolved in South America (b) originated in Australia (c) originated in Pangaea prior to its breakup (d) migrated to all the southern continents after the breakup of Pangaea (e) migrated to Africa and Australia from South America.

69. Evidence from the fossil record suggests that during the Permian extinction (a) dinosaurs became extinct (b) about 90% of all genera became extinct (c) pentadactyl appendages evolved (d) lungfish migrated to Africa and South America (e) all of these.

70. Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin. (b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins. (d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true depending on the organisms involved.

71. Evidence used to establish homology of vertebrate appendages is derived primarily from (a) radio-isotope dating of Permian-age rocks. (b) comparative studies of embryological development. (c) use of the appendages as indicated by Cretaceous and Tertiary fossils. (d) phylogenies based on amino acid sequences of certain proteins. (e) studies of gene frequency changes in populations undergoing selection.

72. According to the fossil record, the Cambrian period (a) ended with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) began with the extinction of the dinosaurs. (c) was the time most modern animal phyla appeared on Earth. (d) was the time mammals first appeared on Earth. (e) was the time when the first land vertebrates appeared on Earth.

73. According to the fossil record, what evidently happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Most of the modern animal phyla first appeared. (b) The dinosaurs became extinct. (c) Vast numbers of species became extinct. (d) Flowering plants appeared. (e) There was a great increase in the diversity of mammals, birds, and pollinating insects.

74. Which of the following are included in the fossil record? (a) footprints (b) burrows (c) skull bones (d) nests and eggs (e) all of these.

75. Which of the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil record? (a) nesting behavior (b) movement (c) ecological relationships (d) fate of homologous structures (e) all of these.

76. Bat and bird wings (a) both are made from pentadactyl appendages (b) have similar internal structure (c) both exhibit elongation of several "fingers" (d) both exhibit reduction in number of "fingers" (e) function similarly but are not homologous.

77. Proximal problems are problems (a) of origin (b) involving evolutionary relationships (c) of function (d) that are essentially "why" questions (e) cannot be studied experimentally.

78. Ultimate problems are problems (a) of origin (b) of function (c) that are essentially "how" questions (d) that must be solved before we can control processes such as cell division (e) that must be studied experimentally.

79. Which of the following structures in your body are considered homologous to the same structures in fossil plesiosaurs, pterosaurs, and lobe-finned fish? (a) humerus (b) radius (c) ulna (d) all of these (e) none of these.

80. Which of the following would probably be the best outgroup for constructing a phylogeny of one family of beetles? (a) lobe-finned fish (b) another family of beetles (c) the ingroup family of beetles (d) some group of plants (e) a mouse.

81. Phylogenies suggest (a) the best outgroup (b) a sequence of evolutionary events (c) the best set of characters to use in analysis (d) the correct plesiomorphic characters (e) all of these.

82. How might you test a phylogenetic hypothesis involving living horses and their relatives? (a) construct a phylogeny using ribosomal DNA (b) construct a phylogeny using primary structure of homologous proteins (c) construct a phylogeny incorporating fossil horses and camels (d) none of these methods would work (e) all of these methods would work.

83. In a phylogenetic analysis, the principle of parsimony (a) minimizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (b) maximizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps (c) minimizes the number of shared derived traits (d) eliminates plesiomorphic characters. (e) all of these.

84. Molecular phylogenies can be constructed using (a) primary protein structure (b) nucleotide sequences (c) frequencies of isozymes in a population (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

85. How could you test a phylogenetic hypothesis regarding members of the Rosaceae? (a) Use their DNA to construct a phylogeny. (b) Use some homologous protein to construct a phylogeny. (c) Dissect all the species and discover some more structural characters used in a new phylogeny. (d) Find some new species of rose to include in the analysis. (e) all of these.

86. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Permian age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) flowering plants (b) dinosaurs (c) birds (d) amphibians (e) all of these.

87. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Tertiary age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) trilobites (b) placoderms (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

88. If you collected sedimentary rocks of Ordovician age, you would expect to find fossils of (a) birds (b) insects (c) ostracoderms (d) mammoths (e) any of these.

89. Which of the following processes do scientists either know or believe have contributed to the present distribution and diversity of living organisms on Earth? (a) meteors (b) fire (c) continental drift (d) evolution (e) all of these.

90. The term "Modern Synthesis" (or Neodarwinism) refers to (a) the fossil record (b) the use of cladistic software to construct phylogenies (c) the explanation of Darwinian principles in terms of population genetics (d) the use of gene sequences available from the Internet (e) all of these.

91. In a population experiencing directional selection for a particular trait, you would expect (a) the mean value of a trait to change. (b) the variability of that trait to increase. (c) the variability of that trait to decrease. (d) the population to split into two or more in which the expression of the trait was distinctly different.

92. In a population experiencing disruptive selection for a particular trait, you would expect (a) the mean value of a trait to change. (b) the variability of that trait to increase. (c) the variability of that trait to decrease. (d) the population to split into two or more in which the expression of the trait was distinctly different.

93. In a population experiencing stabilizing selection for a particular trait, you would expect (a) the mean value of a trait to change. (b) the variability of that trait to increase. (c) the variability of that trait to decrease. (d) the population to split into two or more in which the expression of the trait was distinctly different.

94. What are some of the familiar foods produced from European wild lettuce using Darwinian principles of selection? (a) squash and pumpkins (b) tomatoes and peppers (c) broccoli and cauliflower (d) radishes and carrots (e) all of these.

95. Larval animals are (a) sexually immature. (b) structurally different from adults. (c) found in the life cycles of most animals. (d) usually occupy different habitats from the adults. (e) all of these.

96. Most animals are (a) beetles, ant, wasps, moths, and butterflies. (b) familiar to most humans. (c) acoelomate. (d) warm, fuzzy, and have big brown eyes.

97. If you studied a species of wild mouse carefully, you would expect to find (a) few if any loci undergoing evolutionary changes. (b) Darwinian selection operating only in those individuals that were largest or strongest. (c) Darwinian selection operating mainly in those populations whose food supply was unlimited. (d) a lot of different parasite species. (e) all of these.

98. Ronald Ross (a) built the Panama Canal. (b) discovered the present distribution of lungfish. (c) de-scribed the structural homology between various vertebrate appendages. (d) discovered the life cycle of malarial parasites. (e) described species of parasites from damselflies.

99. What do you know about _Ascaris lumbricoides_? (a) It is transmitted by mosquitoes. (b) Its life cycle involves larval stages that live in water. (c) Approximately one out of every four people on Earth has at least one. (d) Many of them can be found in sunfish in any local pond. (e) It was first discovered by a University of Nebraska student.

100. According to scientists who work on disease, an important cause of cognitive development problems is (a) head lice. (b) pinworms. (c) fleas, ticks, and mites (d) childhood diarrhea.

*****

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Chapter 8 – The Big Picture in biology

THE BIG PICTURE IN BIOLOGY: Take home lessons from BIOS 101 (with JJ's personal comments in parentheses):

"The natural world need not be logical in any obvious way. Science does not consist of imposing our reason on the world but rather reducing our preconceptions to the point that the world imposes its logic on us. This is very difficult indeed, involving a minimalization of our ego while maintaining our full powers of observation and receptivity. The capacity to perform this feat is what the teacher of science attempts to foster in the student. No one succeeds completely."

\--L. Slobodkin (from Simplicity and Complexity in Games of the Intellect)

I. Earth is the only planet in the universe actually known to support life.

(Get ready for a BIG surprise if life is discovered elsewhere, but in the meantime, don't be short-sighted and stupid about how you interact with this planet.)

II. Life on Earth is characterized by enormous diversity superimposed on great uniformity.

(Uniformity is in DNA structure, metabolic processes, etc.; diversity is in the massive number of species that occupy the planet.)

III. Evolution is the best general explanation science has for life's enormous diversity superimposed on great uniformity.

(That's why it's the central unifying theme of the discipline.)

IV. The vast majority of species that have ever lived are now extinct.

(It's real easy to be naïve and arrogant about our own, mainly because we're so smart, but the evidence for IV. is very convincing.)

V. There is a staggering amount of scientific evidence that virtually all things in the universe have a beginning and an end, and our solar system is probably no exception.

(The term "virtually all things" includes everything from individual lives, to nations and civilizations, to planetary systems, stars, and galaxies.)

VI. The present distribution of life and other natural resources is a result of several billion years of planetary change (evolution, both geological and biological).

(That distribution has significant social and political consequences, and so to some extent, your daily headlines are a result of planetary forces at work, forces over which you have no control and did not make happen.)

VII. Science is different from Technology.

(Science and technology both require fundamental knowledge of nature, but technology seeks to control nature, while science seeks to understand nature. Control is not necessarily "good;" understanding is not necessarily "bad." It's what humans do with their control and understanding that make humans "good" or "bad.")

VIII. Many of our most difficult social and political problems have a major biological component:

(The list of these problems includes racism, sexism, unwanted pregnancy, global energy distribution, intellectual and cultural richness, the definition of "human being," narcotics, global water distribution, genetic "engineering" and its consequences, infectious disease evolution and transmission, our relationships with insects, etc. Such a list could go on for several more pages.)

IX. You are surrounded by biological information, but you need to take the time and effort to look for, then use, it.

(Your life, and the lives of those around you, will be greatly enriched by such awareness; after all, life is the characteristic that sets Earth apart from other planets and, insofar as we know, all other planetary systems.)

X. The scientific and technological explosion is not going away any time soon; it's better to be educated than ignorant about all scientific and technological issues.

(For one obvious example: the information technology you use hourly is taking away your privacy, and re-defining what it means to be a human, about as fast as it can be done.)

37. What do you know about the nucleotides within the nuclei of two different species of campus plants? (a) At least some of them contain adenine. (b) Their sequences within nucleic acids differ in the order of their nitrogenous bases. (c) They all contain nitrogen and carbon. (d) All of these answers are correct. (e) None of these answers is correct.

38. do you know about the species of campus plants other than the ones you chose as your study plants for the semester? (a) They all have scientific names. (b) They all have sets of environment conditions under which they reproduce. (c) They all have evolutionary histories. (d) They all have related species and native geographical distributions. (e) All of these answers are correct.

39. According to the Big Picture in Biology document, which of the following are likely the result of several billion years of Earth's geological and biological history? (a) current location of North America (b) present day distribution of petroleum supplies (c) agricultural economies of certain nations (d) distribution of certain species (e) All of these answers are correct.

40. According to the Big Picture in Biology document, which of the following current "hot button" social issues have a major biological component? (a) racism (b) sexism (c) sexual orientation (d) unwanted pregnancy (e) All of these answers are correct.

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BIOS 101 Outcomes:

As a result of taking this class, you should be able to clearly explain the following to your friends and relatives who have not taken biology:

(1) The fundamental nature of science and of biology.

(2) The biological roles and functions of the major ingredients indicated on labels of processed food.

(3) The design of a typical experiment and analysis of the results.

(4) The structure of a cell and the functions of all the cell organelles typically illustrated in an introductory biology text.

(5) Mendelian inheritance of dominant and recessive traits and the calculations used to predict probabilities of genotype.

(6) Why evolution is the central unifying theme in biology.

(7) The evolutionary principles as outlined in an introductory college biology text.

(8) The flow of energy, chemical elements, and molecules through an ecosystem.

(9) The diversity of living organisms on Earth.

(10) The role(s) that humans play, and have played, in modification of the Earth's biota and life support systems.

*****

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